ATI RN
NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tumor necrosis factor - α - appears to play an important role in autoimmunity and inflammatory diseases. Which of the following is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF - a and inhibits its action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Infliximab. Infliximab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and inhibits its action. This drug is commonly used in the treatment of autoimmune and inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's disease, and psoriasis. Option A) Etanercept is a fusion protein that also binds to TNF-α, but it is a soluble receptor rather than a monoclonal antibody. Option C) Muromonab-CD3 is a monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of acute rejection in organ transplantation by targeting T cells, not TNF-α. Option D) Sirolimus is a mTOR inhibitor used as an immunosuppressant in transplant patients and for the treatment of certain cancers, unrelated to TNF-α inhibition. Understanding the mechanism of action of each chemotherapy drug is crucial in clinical practice to ensure appropriate selection and dosing for optimal patient outcomes. It is essential for nurses and other healthcare providers to have a solid grasp of these concepts to provide safe and effective care to patients receiving chemotherapy.
Question 2 of 5
Passive immunization involves
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive immunization involves the administration of preformed antibodies to provide immediate protection against a specific antigen. This is the correct answer (D) because preformed antibodies are directly given to the individual, bypassing the need for their immune system to produce them. This is especially useful in situations where rapid immunity is needed, such as exposure to a disease. Option A, live immunogens, are actually live microorganisms that are used in active immunization to stimulate the body's immune response. Option B, polysaccharide vaccines, are also used in active immunization to elicit an immune response by presenting specific antigens to the body. Option C, stimulation of antibody formation, is related to active immunization, where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies in response to an antigen. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to understand the principles of passive immunization, as it plays a vital role in preventing and treating certain infections and diseases. Knowing the differences between passive and active immunization helps in making informed decisions regarding the appropriate type of immunization strategy for different scenarios, such as post-exposure prophylaxis or prevention of mother-to-child transmission of diseases.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a polysaccharide used for active immunization in patients with chronic cardiorespiratory ailments?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Pneumococcal vaccine because it is a polysaccharide vaccine used for active immunization in patients with chronic cardiorespiratory ailments. Pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can lead to serious respiratory illnesses, especially in individuals with underlying cardiorespiratory conditions. Option A) Antilymphocyte immune serum is used for immunosuppression in organ transplant recipients to prevent rejection, not for active immunization. Option B) BCG vaccine is used for tuberculosis prevention, not specifically for patients with chronic cardiorespiratory ailments. Option C) Mumps virus vaccine is used to prevent mumps infection, which is not directly related to chronic cardiorespiratory conditions. Educational context: Understanding the specific uses of different vaccines is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when dealing with patients who have chronic illnesses. Knowing which vaccines are indicated for certain conditions helps in providing appropriate care and preventive measures. In the context of NCLEX questions, this knowledge is essential for ensuring patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
An important therapeutic or toxic effect of loop diuretics is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this NCLEX question on loop diuretics, the correct answer is A) Decreased blood volume. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle in the kidney, leading to increased urine output. This increased urine output results in decreased blood volume due to the loss of fluid from the body. Option B) Decreased heart rate is incorrect because loop diuretics primarily affect fluid balance and electrolyte levels, not heart rate. Option C) Increased serum sodium is incorrect because loop diuretics actually lead to increased excretion of sodium, causing a decrease in serum sodium levels. Option D) Increased total body potassium is incorrect because loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, not an increase in total body potassium. Educationally, understanding the effects of loop diuretics is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals who administer these drugs to patients with conditions such as heart failure, hypertension, or edema. It is important to monitor patients for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances when using loop diuretics to prevent complications. A solid grasp of pharmacology is essential for safe and effective nursing practice, making this knowledge valuable for NCLEX preparation and real-world patient care.
Question 5 of 5
Chemoprophylaxis for travelers to geographic regions where chloroquine-resistant P falciparum is endemic is best provided by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of providing chemoprophylaxis for travelers to regions with chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum, the best option among the choices is Mefloquine (B). Mefloquine is a recommended drug for malaria prevention in areas where chloroquine resistance is prevalent. It is effective against multiple strains of malaria parasites, including P. falciparum. Atovaquone (A) is primarily used for treating or preventing Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and toxoplasmosis, not for malaria prophylaxis. Primaquine (C) is used for preventing relapse of vivax and ovale malaria, not for chloroquine-resistant strains. Pyrimethamine plus sulfadoxine (D) is a treatment option for uncomplicated malaria caused by sensitive strains but not for prophylaxis in chloroquine-resistant regions. Educationally, understanding the appropriate use of different antimalarial drugs is crucial for healthcare providers, especially when managing travelers to malaria-endemic areas. Knowledge of drug effectiveness, resistance patterns, and indications helps in providing optimal care and preventing treatment failures or complications. It is important to stay updated on guidelines to ensure safe and effective chemoprophylaxis.