ATI RN
Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Tuberculosis can be treated by means of combined chemotherapy that includes substances with different mechanisms of action. What antituberculous medication inhibits transcription of RNA into DNA in mycobacteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampicin is the correct answer because it inhibits RNA transcription in mycobacteria by binding to the bacterial RNA polymerase. This prevents the synthesis of RNA, leading to the inhibition of protein production essential for bacterial growth. Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis, and Ethionamide disrupts mycolic acid synthesis. These mechanisms are different from inhibiting RNA transcription, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria are known for producing toxins that can lead to foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Clostridium botulinum, Salmonella enterica, Escherich:ia coli) are known to produce toxins causing foodborne illnesses. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin, causing botulism. Salmonella enterica produces toxins leading to salmonellosis. Escherichia coli can produce toxins like Shiga toxin causing food poisoning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacterium is individually known to produce toxins causing foodborne illnesses, thus the correct answer is D.
Question 3 of 9
A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida
Question 4 of 9
All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peritoneum. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit the human body without causing harm. The peritoneum is a sterile area, so it does not harbor normal flora. The urethra, vagina, and mouth all have normal flora due to their moist and warm environments, which provide an ideal habitat for microorganisms to thrive. The peritoneum, being a sterile cavity that houses organs like the stomach and intestines, does not have a natural microbial population like the other areas mentioned. Therefore, it does not contain normal flora.
Question 5 of 9
The main structure components of viruses are
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses consist of genetic material (nucleic acid) surrounded by a protein coat. The nucleic acid carries the viral genetic information, while the proteins form the capsid that protects the genetic material. This combination is essential for the virus to infect host cells and replicate. Lipids (choice B) are not typically part of the main structure of viruses. Lipids are more commonly found in the host cell membrane. Lipids and proteins (choice C) may be present in the viral envelope but are not the main structural components. Proteins and glycoproteins (choice D) are important for viral attachment and entry into host cells but do not constitute the main structural components of viruses.
Question 6 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory received sputum sample of a patient suffering from tuberculosis. Bacterioscopic examination of smears and detection of tuberculosis bacillus can be realized by one of enrichment methods that involves processing of sputum only with solution of caustic soda. What is this method called?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inactivation. In this method, the sputum sample is processed with a solution of caustic soda, which helps to kill any contaminants present and preserve the tuberculosis bacillus for microscopic examination. This step is crucial in ensuring accurate detection of the bacillus. A: Homogenization involves breaking down the sample to make it uniform, but it does not necessarily involve using caustic soda for inactivation. C: Flotation is a method used to separate different components based on their density and is not specific to inactivating tuberculosis bacillus. D: Filtration involves passing a sample through a filter to separate particles based on size and is not related to inactivating the tuberculosis bacillus.
Question 7 of 9
Tuberculosis can be treated by means of combined chemotherapy that includes substances with different mechanisms of action. What antituberculous medication inhibits transcription of RNA into DNA in mycobacteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampicin is the correct answer because it inhibits RNA transcription in mycobacteria by binding to the bacterial RNA polymerase. This prevents the synthesis of RNA, leading to the inhibition of protein production essential for bacterial growth. Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis, and Ethionamide disrupts mycolic acid synthesis. These mechanisms are different from inhibiting RNA transcription, making them incorrect choices.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following antibodies indicates acute measles infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacterial structure allows for attachment to host cells?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fimbriae. Fimbriae are hair-like appendages found on the surface of bacteria that enable attachment to host cells. This attachment is crucial for establishing infection. Flagella (A) are used for movement, not attachment. Capsules (C) provide protection and help evade the host immune system, but do not directly facilitate attachment. Endospores (D) are dormant structures for survival, not for attachment to host cells. Fimbriae specifically aid in adherence to host cells, making them the correct choice in this context.