Trial of scar is likely to have an auspicious outcome if the- Nurselytic

Question 1 of 5

Trial of scar is likely to have an auspicious outcome if the

A. Estimated fetal weight is below 3500 grams B. Maternal body mass index is estimated at 27.5 C. Gestational age is approximately 42 weeks D. Maternal age is approximately 42 years

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an estimated fetal weight below 3500 grams indicates a lower risk of complications during childbirth. Higher fetal weight increases the likelihood of shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Maternal body mass index, gestational age, and maternal age do not directly impact the likelihood of a favorable outcome during a trial of scar.

Question 2 of 5

The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?

A. Incisional biopsy is preferred to excisional biopsy when possible B. Core needle biopsy has a higher rate of false positive than does fine needle aspiration C. Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors D. Core needle and incisional biopsies are virtually identical in terms of false results

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.

Question 3 of 5

The presenting diameter in brow presentation is

A. Submentobregmatic B. Suboccipitofrontal C. Occipitalfrontal D. Mentovertical

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is Submentobregmatic (choice A) because it refers to the distance from the submentum (chin) to the bregma (anterior fontanelle). This is the appropriate measurement for the brow presentation as the brow is the prominent part between the forehead and the chin. Choice B (Suboccipitofrontal) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the subocciput to the frontal bone, which is not relevant to brow presentation. Choice C (Occipitalfrontal) is incorrect because it describes the distance from the occiput to the frontal bone, which again is not specific to brow presentation. Choice D (Mentovertical) is incorrect as it denotes the distance from the chin to the vertex, which is not the relevant measurement for brow presentation.

Question 4 of 5

When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

A. Lifelong vitamin D replacement B. Excision of the ulcer, which produces an 80% cure rate C. To eat much smaller, more frequent meals D. Some form of vagotomy

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.

Question 5 of 5

There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

A. Is having anterior wall ischemia B. Is having an anterior wall infarction C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

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Nurselytic

ATI RN