Tretinoin is commonly employed in the treatment of which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acne. Tretinoin is a topical retinoid that is commonly used to treat acne. It works by promoting skin cell turnover and preventing the formation of new acne lesions. Tretinoin is not used for psoriasis (A), seborrheic dermatitis (B), or multiple sclerosis (D) as these conditions require different treatment approaches.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drug interactions. Elderly patients are at higher risk for drug interactions due to age-related changes in metabolism and multiple medications. This can lead to adverse effects, reduced efficacy, or toxicity. It is the highest priority as it directly impacts patient safety. Summary of other choices: B: Cost of medications - While important, it is not as critical as drug interactions for patient safety. C: Schedule of medications - Important for adherence but not as urgent as addressing potential drug interactions. D: Nonadherence to drug regimen - Also important, but drug interactions pose a more immediate risk to the patient's health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. Diuretics are used to decrease preload in heart failure patients by promoting diuresis, reducing fluid volume, and subsequently decreasing the pressure within the heart chambers. This helps to alleviate symptoms of fluid overload and reduce cardiac workload. Corticosteroids (B) are not typically used for preload reduction in heart failure. Beta blockers (C) and calcium channel blockers (D) primarily work by reducing afterload and improving cardiac function, rather than directly targeting preload reduction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist. Rationale: 1. Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a recommended first-line antibiotic for recurrent otitis media due to its broad spectrum coverage. 2. Referring the child to an otolaryngologist is necessary for further evaluation and management of recurrent ear infections, as this child has had multiple episodes in a year. Summary of other choices: A: Prescribing both high dose amoxicillin and the influenza vaccine is not the best option as the child already has recurrent ear infections and needs a more comprehensive approach. B: Beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is not recommended as a first-line treatment for recurrent otitis media. C: Prescribing ceftriaxone IV with benzocaine ear drops is not the optimal choice for managing recurrent ear infections in a 2-year-old.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because cefotetan can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with ethanol, leading to symptoms such as stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, sweating, itching, headache, and decreased blood pressure. This reaction occurs due to the inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase by cefotetan, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when ethanol is consumed. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not explain the specific symptoms experienced by the patient, which are indicative of a disulfiram-like reaction triggered by the interaction between cefotetan and ethanol.