Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with

Questions 64

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory insufficiency. Chronic traumatic diaphragmatic hernias can lead to gradual compromise of respiratory function due to herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, causing compression of the lungs and reduced lung capacity. This results in symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and chest pain. Sepsis (B) is more commonly associated with acute traumatic diaphragmatic hernias. Bowel obstruction (C) is a possible complication but typically presents with acute symptoms like abdominal pain and distension. Anemia (D) is not a common presentation of diaphragmatic hernias.

Question 2 of 9

A medical/obstetric predisposing factor to puerperal sepsis includes

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Emergency cesarean section. Emergency cesarean sections can increase the risk of puerperal sepsis due to the urgency of the procedure, which may lead to inadequate sterilization or contamination. Other choices are less directly associated with puerperal sepsis: A may increase the risk of infection, but not specifically puerperal sepsis. C relates to general hygiene practices and D focuses on delays in seeking care, which may affect treatment outcomes but are not direct predisposing factors to puerperal sepsis.

Question 3 of 9

The type of heat loss that is prevented by keeping the NBU temperature warm & warm wrapping of the neonates is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conduction. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. By keeping the neonatal unit warm and wrapping neonates in warm blankets, heat loss through direct contact with surfaces is minimized. Convection involves heat transfer through air or fluid movement, not relevant in this scenario. Evaporation is the process of heat loss through moisture evaporation from the skin, not applicable here. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves, which can be prevented by warm wrapping but not the primary focus in this context.

Question 4 of 9

Three (3) types of breech presentation:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and extended at the knees. In a complete breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and knees. In a footling breech presentation, one or both of the baby's feet are positioned to come out first. These are the three main types of breech presentations. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe the different types of breech presentations, making them incorrect.

Question 5 of 9

What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.

Question 6 of 9

Complications of uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.

Question 7 of 9

Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.

Question 8 of 9

What are the recommended strategies for managing a breech presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: External cephalic version. This procedure involves manually manipulating the baby from a breech position to a head-down position. It is recommended as a safe and effective way to manage breech presentations, reducing the need for a cesarean section. Immediate cesarean (B) is not always necessary and should be reserved for specific medical reasons. Pelvic X-ray (C) is not routinely recommended for managing breech presentations. Induction of labor (D) is not the primary strategy for managing breech presentations, as it does not address the positioning of the baby.

Question 9 of 9

A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast cancer. The patient's breast cancer is the reason she is ineligible to donate organs. Breast cancer is a contraindication for organ donation due to the risk of cancer transmission to the recipient. Traumatic brain injury (choice B) and renal failure (choice A) are not absolute contraindications to organ donation. Gram-negative infection (choice C) may temporarily disqualify the patient but can be treated, unlike breast cancer. In summary, breast cancer poses the highest risk of organ recipient harm compared to the other medical conditions listed.

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