ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory insufficiency. Chronic traumatic diaphragmatic hernias can lead to gradual compromise of respiratory function due to herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, causing compression of the lungs and reduced lung capacity. This results in symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and chest pain. Sepsis (B) is more commonly associated with acute traumatic diaphragmatic hernias. Bowel obstruction (C) is a possible complication but typically presents with acute symptoms like abdominal pain and distension. Anemia (D) is not a common presentation of diaphragmatic hernias.
Question 2 of 9
Fetal indications for cesarean section include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fetal indications for cesarean section typically involve situations where the baby cannot safely be delivered vaginally. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion means the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis, necessitating a C-section. Impacted face presentation can result in difficulty during delivery, also requiring a C-section. Locked twins refer to a situation where the babies are unable to move past each other during delivery, further indicating the need for a C-section. Choices A, B, and C include some relevant indications for a C-section, but they do not encompass the full range of fetal indications like choice D does.
Question 3 of 9
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.
Question 4 of 9
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.
Question 5 of 9
Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is important to manage medications appropriately preoperatively to minimize complications. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, should be continued up until the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension or tachycardia. Metformin should be held on the day of surgery to avoid potential lactic acidosis due to its effects on kidney function. Warfarin should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Vitamin E can increase bleeding risk and should be discontinued. Choice A is incorrect as not all medications should be taken until the morning of surgery. Choice C is incorrect as warfarin should be held earlier than 5 days before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as metformin should be held on the day of surgery, regardless of blood sugar levels, to prevent lactic acidosis.
Question 6 of 9
What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.
Question 7 of 9
The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumothorax. Respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by difficulty breathing due to immature lungs in premature infants. Pneumothorax, a condition where air leaks into the chest cavity, is a common complication as the fragile lungs are prone to air leaks. Cerebral palsy (A), epilepsy (C), and fractured ribs (D) are not direct complications of respiratory distress syndrome. Pneumothorax is the most likely and common complication due to the fragility of the premature infant's lungs.
Question 8 of 9
T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, T. S. is brain dead and has a donor notation. However, a long history of alcohol use can lead to liver damage, making her liver unsuitable for donation. Encephalopathy (A) is a brain disorder but does not necessarily impact liver suitability. Hepatitis C infection (B) can affect the liver, but it doesn't automatically disqualify someone from being a donor. Biliary cirrhosis (D) refers to a specific liver condition, but it does not preclude someone from being a liver donor unless it has severely damaged the liver beyond use.
Question 9 of 9
Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.