Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TCM) is scheduled for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which comment by the patient indicates teaching about the procedure was effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. This statement indicates understanding of potential side effects of TMS, which may include dizziness or mild headaches post-procedure. This shows the patient has grasped the information provided during teaching. Choice A is incorrect as TMS does not require anesthesia. Choice C is incorrect as TMS does not typically require extended recovery time. Choice D is unrelated to the procedure and pertains to dietary restrictions for MAOIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: hallucinogen ingestion. The individual's symptoms of visual distortions, feelings of detachment from reality, and paranoia are indicative of a hallucinogenic experience. Hallucinogens such as LSD or mushrooms can cause these perceptual disturbances. Vital signs being slightly elevated can also be a sign of hallucinogen use. Schizophrenic episodes (A) typically involve more persistent and complex symptoms over time. Opium intoxication (C) would present with different symptoms such as drowsiness and respiratory depression. Cocaine overdose (D) would exhibit symptoms like agitation, chest pain, and hypertension.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because self-assessing personal attitudes and beliefs about the health problem is crucial in providing effective care without judgment. This step helps the nurse to approach the patient with empathy and understanding, building trust and rapport. Performing a thorough assessment (choice A) may be premature without establishing a therapeutic relationship first. Verifying security services (choice B) is unnecessary and may escalate the situation. Obtaining a face shield (choice D) is not relevant as it does not address the immediate need for establishing a therapeutic relationship.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hopelessness. Hopelessness is a key predictor of elevated suicide risk as it reflects a sense of despair and lack of belief in positive outcomes. Patients who feel hopeless may be more likely to consider suicide as a way to escape their perceived unending suffering. In contrast, sadness (B) is a common emotion that may not necessarily indicate an immediate suicide risk. Elation (C) is also not indicative of suicide risk, as individuals experiencing high levels of joy are less likely to consider suicide. Anger (D) may be a sign of distress but is not as strongly associated with suicide risk as hopelessness.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 79-year-old single, white male diagnosed with terminal cancer of the prostate is at the highest risk for completing suicide. This individual is facing a terminal illness, which can lead to feelings of hopelessness and despair, increasing the risk of suicide. The other choices do not present such high-risk factors for suicide. A: While the adolescent Asian American girl may face pressures from high achievements and asthma, these factors do not inherently place her at the highest risk for suicide. B: The 38-year-old single, African American female church member with fibrocystic breast disease may face challenges, but they do not indicate a high risk for suicide. C: The 60-year-old married Hispanic man with 12 grandchildren who has type 2 diabetes has family support and does not have as severe risk factors as the individual in choice D.