Toxoplasma gondii infection in humans causes:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii infection in humans typically causes chorioretinitis. This is the correct answer because this parasitic infection commonly affects the eyes, leading to inflammation and damage in the retina and choroid. Chorioretinitis can result in blurred vision, floaters, and in severe cases, permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. The other options are incorrect because: A) Oral ulcers: Toxoplasma gondii infection does not typically present with oral ulcers. B) Cervical lymphadenopathy: While lymphadenopathy can occur in some cases of toxoplasmosis, it is not a characteristic feature of the infection. C) Microcephaly: This is a potential outcome of congenital toxoplasmosis if a pregnant woman contracts the infection, but it is not a common symptom in general toxoplasmosis infections. In an educational context, understanding the clinical manifestations of different infections, such as toxoplasmosis, is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatrics. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of various conditions helps in accurate diagnosis and timely treatment, ultimately improving patient outcomes. This question also highlights the importance of differentiating between common manifestations of a disease and less typical presentations to enhance clinical reasoning skills.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C) Measles. Immunization schedules for children are carefully designed to provide protection against specific diseases at certain ages based on disease prevalence, vaccine efficacy, and immune system development. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to severe complications in young children, making it crucial to vaccinate them early. Option A) Tetanus is typically included in the DTaP vaccine series, which is administered starting at 2 months of age, not specifically at 2 years old. Option B) Polio vaccination is usually given as part of the routine childhood immunization schedule but is not specifically required at 2 years old. Option D) Hepatitis A vaccination is recommended between 12-23 months, so it may have already been administered by the age of 2 years. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind age-specific immunizations is essential for healthcare providers working with pediatric populations. It ensures that children receive the necessary vaccines at the right time to protect them from preventable diseases. By grasping the timing and importance of each vaccine, nurses can effectively advocate for and administer vaccinations, contributing to public health efforts and safeguarding children's well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric pharmacology, understanding the causes of stroke in children is crucial for providing safe and effective care. The correct answer is A) Sickle cell disease. Sickle cell disease predisposes individuals to stroke due to vaso-occlusive events leading to impaired blood flow and tissue ischemia. This is a well-documented association in pediatric populations. Option B) Cystinuria is incorrect because it is a genetic disorder characterized by defective renal reabsorption of cystine leading to kidney stones, but it is not a recognized cause of stroke in children. Option C) SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus) is incorrect as it is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects multiple organs, including the skin, joints, and kidneys. While SLE can lead to various complications, stroke in children is not a common manifestation. Option D) Left-to-right shunts are incorrect as they are typically associated with conditions like atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary hypertension, but not directly to stroke in children. Educationally, understanding the specific risk factors for stroke in pediatric patients is essential for nurses and healthcare providers to recognize symptoms early, intervene promptly, and prevent long-term complications. It also highlights the importance of thorough patient assessments and knowledge of pediatric pharmacology to provide safe and individualized care.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In childhood intussusception, the correct answer is D) It is associated with Henoch-Schoenlein purpura. Intussusception is a medical emergency where a part of the intestine folds into itself, causing obstruction and potentially cutting off blood supply. This condition is associated with Henoch-Schoenlein purpura, a systemic vasculitis that can affect the gastrointestinal tract, leading to intussusception. Option A is incorrect because intussusception is most common in children between 3 months and 3 years of age, with a peak incidence around 6-9 months. Option B is incorrect because the investigation of choice for intussusception is typically an ultrasound, not a barium enema, due to the risk of perforation with barium enema. Option C is incorrect because patients with intussusception typically present with colicky abdominal pain that comes and goes, known as "currant jelly" stools, rather than constant abdominal pain. In an educational context, understanding the association between intussusception and Henoch-Schoenlein purpura is crucial for healthcare providers caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of intussusception, along with its associations, can lead to prompt diagnosis and intervention, ultimately improving patient outcomes. Healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about the appropriate diagnostic approaches and age incidence patterns to provide safe and effective care for children with potential intussusception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Phenytoin. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as an adverse effect. This condition is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. The mechanism of this side effect is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve alterations in the connective tissue metabolism in response to phenytoin. Cyclophosphamide (option B) is a chemotherapy agent used to treat various cancers and autoimmune conditions. It is not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Frusemide (option C) is a diuretic commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. It is not known to cause gingival hyperplasia. Carbamazepine (option D) is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures and certain types of nerve pain. While it can cause other dermatological side effects, gingival hyperplasia is not a known adverse effect of carbamazepine. Educationally, understanding the potential side effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses. By knowing which medications can lead to specific adverse effects, nurses can monitor patients for signs and symptoms, provide appropriate education, and collaborate with other healthcare team members to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.