ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. A well-informed new graduate would know the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. This is because in ABO blood typing, individuals with blood type A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, if A-positive blood (which contains the A antigen) is given to an A-negative client (who has anti-A antibodies), there is a high risk of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the antibodies attacking the transfused blood cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve a mismatch of ABO blood types that would lead to a significant risk of acute hemolytic reaction. In choice B, O-positive blood can be safely transfused to an A-positive client as O blood is considered the universal donor. In choice C, O-negative blood can be safely given to an O-positive client as O-negative blood is compatible with all blood types. In choice D, B-positive blood can be safely administered to an AB-positive client as the AB blood type can receive both
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms should a nurse assess in a client when implementing interventions for trauma to the upper airway?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of laryngospasm. Laryngospasm is a serious complication of trauma to the upper airway that can lead to airway obstruction. Assessing for laryngospasm is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Pain when talking (A) is more related to vocal cord injury, increased nasal swelling (B) is a symptom of nasal trauma, and burning in the throat (C) may indicate pharyngeal injury, but laryngospasm (D) directly affects airway patency in upper airway trauma cases.
Question 4 of 9
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication following hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland). This procedure can disrupt the regulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination. Choice A is incorrect as decreased stress would not cause polyuria. Choice B is unlikely as the onset of diabetes mellitus is not a typical immediate postoperative complication. Choice C is incorrect as removal of the pituitary gland would disrupt hormone regulation, possibly leading to polyuria, rather than being an expected result.
Question 5 of 9
Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. A client with diabetes mellitus should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wash and inspect the feet daily. This is important for clients with diabetes mellitus to prevent complications like foot ulcers. Daily foot care helps detect any issues early. Choice A is incorrect as it is not recommended to use commercial preparations without medical advice. Choice C is incorrect as walking barefoot can increase the risk of injury and infection. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails by rounding edges can lead to ingrown toenails, which can be dangerous for clients with diabetes.
Question 7 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Safety first: Patient safety is the top priority in healthcare. Vital signs provide crucial information about the patient's condition. 2. Accountability: The nurse is responsible for ensuring accurate vital sign documentation. Asking the NAP to record vital signs before medication administration ensures accountability. 3. Communication: Clear communication between healthcare team members is essential to provide quality care. Asking the NAP to record vital signs promotes effective communication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A (abnormal vital signs): Administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, especially if abnormal, can be dangerous and potentially harmful. B (review upon return): Delaying vital sign assessment until later can lead to missed opportunities for timely intervention if the patient's condition changes. D (omit vital signs): Neglecting vital signs based on assumption risks overlooking potential issues that could impact patient care and outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following client outcomes best describes the parameters for achieving the outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) parameters for achieving the outcome. It outlines the calorie intake, meal frequency, and start date, which allows for clear monitoring and evaluation of progress. Choice A is too vague and lacks specificity. Choice C focuses on wound care, not dietary goals. Choice D lacks specificity and a timeframe, making it difficult to measure success. In conclusion, choice B is the best option as it aligns with effective goal-setting principles.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a bowel resection. Which of the following would indicate that the patient’s gastrointestinal tract is resuming normal function?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of flatus. This indicates normal gastrointestinal function post-bowel resection. Flatus production signifies peristalsis and passage of gas through the intestines, indicating that the bowels are working. A, firm abdomen, may indicate distention or ileus, not normal function. C, excessive thirst, is unrelated to bowel function. D, absent bowel sounds, may indicate ileus or bowel obstruction, not normal function.