ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 2 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Safety First - The nurse's priority is patient safety. Without vital signs, medication administration can be unsafe. Step 2: Accountability - The nurse must ensure accurate and timely vital signs recording before making clinical decisions. Step 3: Delegation - Asking the NAP to record vital signs aligns with their role and helps maintain a reliable record. Step 4: Proactive Approach - By having the NAP record vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions based on accurate data. Summary: A: Incorrect - Proceeding with medications without vital signs can risk patient safety. B: Incorrect - Waiting to review vital signs later can delay necessary interventions. D: Incorrect - Omitting vital signs is negligent and compromises patient care.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following symptoms most likely indicates that an infusion is infiltrated?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puffiness at the site. This indicates infiltration of the infusion, where the medication or fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream. Puffiness is a sign of fluid accumulation due to the infiltration. Redness at the site (A) may indicate infection, pain (B) can be due to various reasons, and exudate (D) may suggest infection or irritation, but they are not specific to infiltration. Infiltration assessment involves checking for swelling, coolness, and blanching around the infusion site.
Question 4 of 9
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cancerous lumps. Breast self-examination aims to detect any abnormal changes in the breasts, including potential cancerous lumps. Detecting cancerous lumps early increases the chances of successful treatment and improved outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while changes from previous self-examinations, areas of thickness or fullness, and fibrocystic masses can be important to note, the primary goal of breast self-examination is to identify any signs of breast cancer, such as cancerous lumps.
Question 6 of 9
The ff are the tonometer measurements of five clients. Which of them has normal intraocular pressure (IOP)? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal range for intraocular pressure (IOP) is approximately 10-21 mm Hg. Choice C has an IOP of 11 mm Hg, falling within this normal range, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are outside the normal range, with A being too low and B and D being too high, indicating abnormal IOP levels. Choice A (8 mm Hg) is below the normal range, while choices B (25 mm Hg) and D (28 mm Hg) are above the normal range, therefore, they are incorrect answers.
Question 7 of 9
The client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver damage, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Direct bilirubin specifically indicates liver function. A: Sodium level is not related to acetaminophen toxicity. C: Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, not indicative of acetaminophen toxicity. D: Platelet count is not affected by acetaminophen toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is involved when caring for a client with influenza?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Immediate recognition of respiratory distress. This is crucial when caring for a client with influenza as the virus can lead to respiratory complications. Prompt recognition allows for timely intervention and prevents further deterioration. A: Maintaining airborne transmission is incorrect as the goal is to prevent the spread of influenza through droplet precautions, not airborne transmission. B: Oxygen administration may be necessary for severe cases of influenza, but immediate recognition of respiratory distress takes precedence in the nursing interventions. D: Complete bed rest is not recommended for influenza as mobilization and deep breathing exercises are important to prevent complications like pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.