ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift, potentially leading to an uneven distribution of radiation. This could result in harmful exposure to surrounding tissues. A: Maintaining the client on strict bed rest is important to prevent displacement of the radioactive applicator. C: Providing a complete bed bath each morning is necessary for hygiene and does not pose a radiation hazard. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential to ensure proper placement and does not indicate a radiation hazard.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because successful treatment of diabetes insipidus aims to reduce excessive urine output and dehydration. A fluid intake of less than 2,500mL in 24 hours indicates proper control of fluid balance. Choice B is incorrect because urine output of more than 200mL/hour suggests ongoing excessive fluid loss, which is not indicative of successful treatment. Choice C is incorrect as a blood pressure of 90/50mmHg is low and may indicate hypotension, which is not a specific indicator of successful diabetes insipidus treatment. Choice D is incorrect because a pulse rate of 126 beats/min is not a direct marker of diabetes insipidus treatment success. In summary, the correct indicator of successful treatment of diabetes insipidus is a reduction in fluid intake, option A, as it signifies improved fluid balance and hydration status.
Question 3 of 5
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 4 of 5
Choose the condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a high PCO :
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Respiratory acidosis Rationale: 1. Respiratory acidosis is caused by inadequate ventilation leading to increased PCO₂ and decreased pH. 2. Low pH indicates acidosis, and high PCO₂ indicates respiratory component. 3. Metabolic acidosis (B) results from non-respiratory causes. 4. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low PCO₂. 5. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is caused by non-respiratory factors with high pH.
Question 5 of 5
A client is undergoing test for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple Myeloma includes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bence jones protein in the urine. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excess monoclonal immunoglobulins, including Bence Jones proteins, which can be detected in the urine. This is a hallmark finding in multiple myeloma diagnosis. A: Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels are typically not affected in multiple myeloma. C: Incorrect. Hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, is commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction. D: Incorrect. Multiple myeloma often presents with high serum protein levels, not low levels.
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