To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is crucial for preventing infection when accessing or caring for an invasive monitoring system like a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field, washing hands, using sterile gloves, and using sterile supplies to minimize the risk of contamination. This is essential to prevent introducing harmful microorganisms into the patient's system. Using clean technique (B) or sterile technique only when cleansing the insertion site (C) may not provide adequate protection against infection. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (D) is not an appropriate method for preventing infection and can lead to complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Take the NSAID with meals. Taking NSAIDs with meals helps reduce stomach irritation and risk of developing ulcers. Food acts as a protective barrier and helps in the absorption of the medication. Incorrect Choices: A: Taking NSAID with aspirin can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding due to combined antiplatelet effects. C: Orange juice does not potentiate the effect of NSAIDs and may even worsen stomach irritation due to its acidity. D: NSAIDs do not coat the stomach lining; in fact, they can irritate the stomach lining and increase the risk of ulcers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves verifying the accuracy and consistency of data by comparing it with other reliable sources. This ensures that the data is correct and reliable for analysis. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection, which is followed by data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is not about professional standards but about verifying data accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on deriving meaning and insights from data, not on professional standards. In summary, understanding the differences between data validation and interpretation is crucial for ensuring data accuracy and reliability.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) indicates obesity, putting them at higher risk for surgical complications. Obesity is associated with increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, respiratory issues, and cardiovascular problems post-surgery. Monitoring this patient closely is crucial. Choice A is less likely to have increased surgical complications due to age and condition. Choice C, a 12-year-old, is less likely to have significant surgical complications compared to adults. Choice D, a 17-year-old with gallstones, may have risks but the BMI of the patient in choice B indicates a higher risk.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. The nurse manager would intervene because hemorrhage is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Wandering (A), urinary retention (C), and impaired swallowing (D) are important assessments but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as hemorrhage. The nurse manager would prioritize addressing the hemorrhage to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate