ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inflating the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation ensures it is adequately sealed but not overinflated, preventing complications like tracheal injury or pressure necrosis. Choice A lacks specificity and can lead to overinflation. Choice B may result in overinflation as the firmness of the balloon is subjective. Choice C relies on a specific pressure reading, which may vary based on factors like tube size and patient anatomy, potentially leading to under- or overinflation.
Question 2 of 9
When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). PVR is the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a patient with pulmonary hypertension as it directly reflects the resistance in the pulmonary circulation. A decrease in PVR indicates a reduction in the constriction of blood vessels in the lungs, suggesting improvement in pulmonary hypertension. Monitoring CVP (A) is more relevant in assessing fluid status, SVR (B) is more indicative of systemic vascular tone, and PAWP (D) is useful in assessing left-sided heart function, but they are not as specific to evaluating the effectiveness of treatment for pulmonary hypertension.
Question 3 of 9
A patient nearing death experiences increased secretions and noisy breathing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer anticholinergic medications as prescribed. Anticholinergic medications can help dry up secretions and improve breathing in a patient nearing death. This intervention targets the underlying cause of increased secretions. Suctioning (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root issue. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning (choice C) can help with comfort but do not directly address the secretions. Restricting oral intake (choice D) may lead to dehydration and discomfort without effectively managing the secretions. Administering anticholinergic medications is the priority as it directly targets the symptom of increased secretions, improving the patient's comfort and quality of life.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient note s the high pressure alarm sounding but cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm. The nurasbeir bn.cootme/ste stht e patient’s oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse's priority is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Calling the rapid response team will allow for immediate assessment by a team of healthcare professionals to address the deteriorating condition. This step takes precedence over troubleshooting the ventilator or manually ventilating the patient. Asking for a new ventilator (A) or manually ventilating the patient (D) does not address the urgent need for a comprehensive assessment and intervention. Continuing to troubleshoot the alarm (C) can delay critical interventions needed for the patient's worsening condition. Thus, calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to address the escalating clinical situation promptly.
Question 5 of 9
A patients family is exhibiting increasingly impaired coping as the patients condition deteriorates. The nurse asks the family to state the biggest concern from their perspective.What is the most important rationale for this question?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking the family to state their biggest concern clarifies the nurse's understanding of the current family needs. This step allows the nurse to assess the specific areas where the family may require support or assistance, leading to more tailored interventions. By identifying the primary concern, the nurse can better address the family's emotional, informational, or practical needs. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not solely about active listening; it serves a deeper purpose of assessment. Choice B is incorrect as the question goes beyond validating knowledge to understanding emotional and practical needs. Choice D is incorrect because the question focuses on identifying concerns rather than defining the degree of understanding.
Question 6 of 9
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Volume overload. In acute kidney injury, impaired kidney function leads to fluid retention, causing volume overload. Dialysis helps remove excess fluid to restore fluid balance. Acidosis and hyperkalemia are potential complications of acute kidney injury but not the primary reasons for initiating dialysis. Hypokalemia is unlikely in acute kidney injury due to impaired excretion of potassium by the kidneys. Therefore, the most common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury is to manage volume overload.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical inabteirbn.scoivme/t ecsat re unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for her to seek?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CCRN. The nurse works in a surgical unit, making CCRN (Critical Care Registered Nurse) the most applicable credential as it focuses on critical care nursing, which is relevant to the nurse's current practice. ACNPC (Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Certification) and PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nurse) are not suitable as they are more focused on advanced practice or progressive care respectively, not directly related to surgical units. CCNS (Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification) is not the best choice as it is more geared towards advanced practice roles in specific clinical specialties, not general staff nursing.
Question 8 of 9
A 100-kg patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a diet of 2500 to 3500 kcal per day. During hemodialysis, the patient loses nutrients and energy, so a high-calorie diet is necessary to maintain proper nutrition and energy levels. 2500-3500 kcal/day is a suitable range for a 100-kg patient. Choice B is incorrect because protein intake should be adequate to prevent malnutrition in hemodialysis patients, typically 1.2g/kg body weight/day. Choice C is incorrect as potassium intake should be restricted in hemodialysis patients due to impaired kidney function. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be individualized based on the patient's fluid status and should not be limited to less than 500 mL per day.
Question 9 of 9
Which intervention is appropriate to assist the patient to co pe with admission to the critical care unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Explaining all procedures in easy-to-understand terms. This intervention is appropriate as it helps reduce the patient's anxiety by providing clear information about what to expect during their stay in the critical care unit. This promotes a sense of control and understanding, which can positively impact the patient's coping mechanisms. A: Allowing unrestricted visiting by several family members at one time may overwhelm the patient and interfere with their rest and recovery. C: Providing back massage and mouth care may be beneficial but may not directly address the patient's need for information and understanding. D: Turning down the alarm volume on the cardiac monitor may provide a more comfortable environment but does not address the patient's emotional and psychological needs related to coping with admission to the critical care unit.