ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inflating the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation ensures it is adequately sealed but not overinflated, preventing complications like tracheal injury or pressure necrosis. Choice A lacks specificity and can lead to overinflation. Choice B may result in overinflation as the firmness of the balloon is subjective. Choice C relies on a specific pressure reading, which may vary based on factors like tube size and patient anatomy, potentially leading to under- or overinflation.
Question 2 of 9
Which treatment can be used to dissolve a thrombus that is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombolytics. Thrombolytics are medications that can dissolve blood clots, making them effective in treating a thrombus lodged in the pulmonary artery. They work by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system. Aspirin (A) is an antiplatelet drug and may prevent further clot formation but cannot dissolve an existing thrombus. Embolectomy (B) is a surgical procedure to remove a clot and is invasive, usually reserved for cases where thrombolytics are contraindicated. Heparin (C) is an anticoagulant that prevents clot formation but does not dissolve existing clots like thrombolytics do.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which assessment finding 2 hours after insertion by the nurse warrants immediate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diminished breath sounds over the left lung field. This finding could indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication of subclavian CVC insertion. Immediate action is required to prevent respiratory distress. Incorrect answers: B: Localized pain at insertion site is common post-procedure and may not indicate a serious issue. C: A central venous pressure of 5 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not require immediate action. D: Slight bloody drainage is expected initially and can be managed with routine care.
Question 4 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the healthcare provider immediately if the patient develops:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased jugular venous distention. In a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and on mechanical ventilation, increased jugular venous distention can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately as it may require urgent intervention to prevent further neurological deterioration. A: Oxygen saturation of 93% is within the acceptable range for a patient on mechanical ventilation and may not require immediate notification. B: Respirations of 20 breaths/minute are within normal limits for a ventilated patient and do not necessarily indicate a critical condition. C: Green nasogastric tube drainage may indicate the presence of bile and could be related to gastrointestinal issues, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's neurological status.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for selected nursing activities in the daily assignment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication administration. This is the priority because medication administration is time-sensitive and crucial for patient safety. It requires precise timing and cannot be delayed. Tracheostomy tube suctioning (A), colostomy care instruction (C), and client personal hygiene (D) are important nursing activities but can be adjusted within the schedule based on patient needs and acuity levels. Prioritizing medication administration ensures that patients receive their medications on time, preventing adverse events and promoting optimal health outcomes.
Question 7 of 9
During the primary assessment of a victim of a motor vehicle collision, the nurse determines that the patient is breathing and has an unobstructed airway. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct action is to observe the patient's respiratory effort next. This step ensures that the patient's breathing remains stable and adequate. If respiratory effort is compromised, immediate intervention is required. Checking for bilateral pulses (A) is important but comes after ensuring respiratory status. Checking level of consciousness (C) is also crucial but not as immediate as monitoring breathing. Examining for external bleeding (D) is important but not the priority when airway and breathing are already determined to be clear.
Question 8 of 9
The family of a critically ill patient has asked to discuss organ donation with the patient’s nurse. When preparing to answer the family’s questions, th e nurse understands which concern(s) most often influence a family’s decision to donate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Donor disfigurement influences on funeral care. Families often consider the impact of organ donation on the appearance of their loved one during funeral arrangements. This concern can significantly influence their decision to donate. Incorrect Answers: B: Fear of inferior medical care provided to donor. This is not a common concern as medical care for donors is typically of high quality. C: Age and location of all possible organ recipients. While important, this is not a primary concern for families when deciding on organ donation. D: Concern that donated organs will not be used. Families are generally more concerned about the impact on their loved one's appearance post-donation rather than the utilization of organs.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse assesses a patient who is admitted for an overdo se of sedatives. The nurse expects to find which acid-base alteration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis. When a patient overdoses on sedatives, it can lead to respiratory depression causing hypoventilation. Hypoventilation results in retention of CO2, leading to respiratory acidosis. This is because the body is not effectively exhaling CO2, causing an increase in carbonic acid levels and a decrease in blood pH. The other choices are incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis (Choice A), hypoventilation does not cause respiratory alkalosis (Choice C), and normal oxygen levels do not indicate the acid-base imbalance caused by sedative overdose (Choice D).