To explain cardiogenic shock to Mr. Payer, the most appropriate response would be

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Cardiovascular Physiology Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

To explain cardiogenic shock to Mr. Payer, the most appropriate response would be

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

Following mitral valve replacement, Joan is taught to take her own pulse and encouraged to check it daily as a method of monitoring her progress. You would want her to call her primary care provider if her pulse was

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

The client is on digoxin has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Give Digibind as an antidote. This is the priority action because Digibind is the specific antidote for digoxin toxicity, effectively binding to digoxin and reversing its toxic effects. Checking a potassium level (A) may be important, but addressing the toxicity is the priority. Changing dosing (C) or giving potassium supplement (D) do not directly address the toxicity and may delay appropriate treatment.

Question 4 of 5

The client is diabetic and is given a non-cardio-selective beta blocker. What might happen to the blood sugars?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because non-cardio-selective beta blockers can inhibit glycogenolysis in the liver, leading to decreased production of glucose from glycogen. This can result in a drop in blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because beta blockers do not increase breakdown of glycogen. Choice C is incorrect as beta blockers do impact blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect because beta blockers do not increase cellular uptake of glucose.

Question 5 of 5

The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for arrhythmias. What class of anti-arrhythmic agent is this?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Class IV. Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil and diltiazem, belong to Class IV anti-arrhythmic agents. These drugs work by blocking calcium channels in cardiac cells, leading to decreased conduction through the AV node and slowing of the heart rate. This is particularly effective in treating arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation or supraventricular tachycardia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Class IA agents (e.g., quinidine, procainamide) block sodium channels and have effects on potassium channels, not calcium channels. B: Class II agents (e.g., beta blockers) work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, not calcium channels. C: Class III agents (e.g., amiodarone, sotalol) primarily block potassium channels, not calcium channels, to prolong repolarization.

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