ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Review Questions
Question 1 of 5
To evaluate outcomes for a patient with schizophrenia receiving typical antipsychotic drug therapy, the nurse would look for improvement in:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive symptoms. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Improvement in positive symptoms indicates that the antipsychotic drug therapy is effective in managing the core symptoms of schizophrenia. Affective mobility (choice A) refers to the range and intensity of emotions, which may not directly reflect the effectiveness of antipsychotic therapy. Self-care activities (choice C) and cognitive functioning (choice D) are important aspects to monitor in schizophrenia treatment, but improvement in positive symptoms is a more direct indicator of treatment efficacy.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a long history of hypertension and diabetes now develops confusion. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer’s disease or multiple infarcts. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to prepare the patient for first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography (CT) scan. This diagnostic procedure is the most appropriate initial step in differentiating between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarcts in this case. A CT scan can help identify any structural changes in the brain, such as infarcts or areas of damage, which are more likely to be seen in multiple infarcts rather than Alzheimer's disease. It can also rule out other potential causes of the patient's confusion. Option A (EEG) is not the best choice as it primarily detects electrical activity in the brain and may not provide the structural information needed for this case. Option B (PET scan) is more useful for detecting metabolic changes in the brain and may not be the most appropriate initial test. Option D (SPECT scan) is similar to a PET scan and may not provide the structural details needed for this differential diagnosis. In summary, a CT scan is the most suitable initial diagnostic procedure in this scenario as it can
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is taking psychotropic medication is experiencing constipation. Which intervention would the nurse plan for the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because increasing water intake and consuming fiber-rich foods like green vegetables and bran can help alleviate constipation without the need for additional medication. Water helps soften stool, while fiber promotes bowel movement. Choice B lacks sufficient fiber intake and includes liver, which may not be well-tolerated by everyone. Choice C involves daily use of laxatives and stool softeners, which can lead to dependency and worsen constipation in the long run. Choice D suggests using a retention enema, which is an invasive intervention and should be reserved for severe cases.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is discouraged because his plan to reduce negative symptoms of schizophrenia (apathy, avolition, inattentiveness, poor socialization, poor eye contact and flat affect, etc.) in a client is not working. The mentor’s remark that helps place the problem in perspective is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Negative symptoms have been associated with prefrontal cortical pathology." This is the most appropriate response because it provides a scientific explanation for the nurse's difficulty in reducing the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms in schizophrenia, such as apathy and inattentiveness, are believed to be related to dysfunction in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. Understanding this underlying pathology helps the nurse approach the situation with a more informed perspective. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the specific issue of negative symptoms in schizophrenia and does not provide any helpful insight for the nurse. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a simplistic view of clients being stubborn, which does not consider the complex neurobiological factors at play in schizophrenia. Choice D is incorrect because while it acknowledges the role of psychosocial and environmental factors, it does not address the specific neuropathology associated with negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can lead to sodium channel blockade, causing prolonged QT intervals and various cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. This is a critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening situations like cardiac arrest. Immediate monitoring and intervention are necessary. Hypertension (A) may occur due to anticholinergic effects, but it is not the most immediate concern. Renal failure (B) and gastrointestinal bleeding (D) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressant overdose and are not immediate concerns in this scenario.