To ensure quality nursing care to a patient in skin traction, what is the PRIORTTY intervention that a nurse has to assess frequently?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

To ensure quality nursing care to a patient in skin traction, what is the PRIORTTY intervention that a nurse has to assess frequently?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is in skin traction, the constant pressure and rubbing against the skin from the traction device can lead to skin breakdown. Therefore, assessing for signs of skin breakdown, such as redness, irritation, or pressure injuries, is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient's comfort and safety. Prompt identification and intervention for any skin issues can prevent further damage and promote healing, making this the priority intervention for quality nursing care in skin traction. While monitoring for signs of infection, urinary incontinence, and bowel sounds are important, skin breakdown poses a more immediate threat to the patient's well-being in this scenario.

Question 2 of 9

Which is not a correct statement regarding record-keeping?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Record-keeping is not an optional task; it is a critical aspect of professional nursing practice. As a nurse, maintaining accurate and timely records is essential for providing quality care, ensuring legal and ethical standards are met, and promoting patient safety. Failure to keep thorough records can lead to serious consequences such as compromising patient care, violating regulations, and even facing legal consequences. Thus, record-keeping should be seen as a mandatory part of the professional duty of nurses rather than an optional task that can be done when circumstances allow.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following structures is responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice, which are essential for the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The pancreas is the structure responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. These enzymes aid in the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine to facilitate the absorption of nutrients. The pancreas plays a crucial role in the process of digestion, making it an essential organ in the digestive system. The liver is primarily involved in producing bile to aid in the digestion of fats, the gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, and the spleen is involved in filtering the blood and storing blood cells.

Question 5 of 9

A woman in active labor is receiving intravenous oxytocin for labor augmentation. What nursing intervention is essential to prevent oxytocin-induced uterine hyperstimulation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a woman in active labor is receiving intravenous oxytocin for labor augmentation, it is essential to increase the oxytocin infusion rate gradually to prevent oxytocin-induced uterine hyperstimulation. Uterine hyperstimulation can lead to complications such as fetal distress, uterine rupture, and postpartum hemorrhage. By increasing the oxytocin infusion rate gradually, the uterus has more time to adapt to the medication and reduces the risk of hyperstimulation. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to carefully monitor the woman's response to oxytocin and adjust the infusion rate as needed to ensure safe and effective labor augmentation. Monitoring for signs of uterine hyperstimulation, such as persistent contractions close together or excessive uterine activity, is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring the well-being of both the mother and baby.

Question 6 of 9

Romy is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) a rapidly growing type of cancer. He and his family were shocked when told by the doctor that the patient will just undergo palliative treatment. Which nursing action is MOST APPROPRIATE?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of Romy being diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and undergoing palliative treatment, the most appropriate nursing action is to focus on providing relief from symptoms. Palliative care aims to improve the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by managing their symptoms, such as pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and other side effects of treatment. As the cancer is advanced and the goal is not curative treatment but rather to keep the patient comfortable, symptom management becomes a priority to ensure Romy's physical comfort and well-being during this difficult time. Providing relief from symptoms is crucial in palliative care to help enhance the patient's quality of life and ensure they are as comfortable as possible.

Question 7 of 9

There are pre operative medications given to the patient. Which of the following drugs are given in order to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Demerol (meperidine hydrochloride) is an opioid analgesic commonly used as a preoperative medication to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia. Opioids like Demerol act on the central nervous system to reduce pain sensations, making it an effective choice for preoperative pain management. This can help decrease the amount of anesthesia needed during surgery, leading to better pain control and overall patient comfort during and after the procedure. Celebrex, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen are also used for pain management, but they do not have the same potency and mechanism of action as opioids like Demerol for reducing intra-operative anesthetic requirements.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of compression such as difficulty swallowing and breathing. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals malignant cells with nuclear features suggestive of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Papillary thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that arises from follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It often presents as a thyroid nodule that can cause symptoms of compression due to its enlarging size. The compression symptoms, such as difficulty swallowing and breathing in this case, occur when the thyroid nodule becomes large enough to press on adjacent structures in the neck. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy can confirm the presence of malignant cells with nuclear features typical of papillary thyroid carcinoma, further supporting the diagnosis.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed phosphate binders. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about phosphate binder therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in patient education about phosphate binder therapy is to "Take phosphate binders with meals." Phosphate binders are medications given to patients with chronic kidney disease to help control high phosphate levels in the blood. Taking phosphate binders with meals allows them to bind to the phosphorus present in the food, reducing its absorption in the body. This helps to lower blood phosphate levels effectively. Instructing the patient to take phosphate binders with meals ensures optimal binding of phosphorus from the diet, which is crucial for managing phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days