ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is concerned about pulmonary aspiration when providing the patient with an intermittent tube feeding. Which action is thepriority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying tube placement before feeding is essential to prevent pulmonary aspiration. If the tube is not correctly positioned in the stomach, there is a risk of feeding going into the lungs. Observing the color of gastric contents (A) may not always indicate correct placement. Adding blue food coloring (C) is unnecessary and could cause confusion. Running the formula over 12 hours (D) does not address the risk of pulmonary aspiration and does not ensure proper tube placement.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is checking orders. Which order shouldthe nurse question?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving a hypertonic solution enema to a patient with fluid volume excess can worsen the condition by drawing more fluid into the colon. This can lead to further fluid volume overload and electrolyte imbalances. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal saline enema is appropriate for constipation. C: Kayexalate enema is used to treat hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. D: Oil retention enema is indicated for constipation to soften stool.
Question 5 of 9
A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900 g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL) because the weight of 900 g corresponds to a blood loss of the same amount in milliliters. Blood density is close to that of water, so 1 g ≈ 1 mL. Therefore, a blood-soaked peripad weighing 900 g indicates a blood loss of 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the weight instead of converting it to milliliters. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the weight. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the weight by 10, which is too small for the blood loss indicated.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: After mastoid surgery, patients may experience pain and dizziness, hence addressing the safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents is crucial for symptom management. Step 2: Analgesics help in managing post-operative pain, while antivertiginous agents help control dizziness, reducing the risk of falls. Step 3: Educating the patient on safe use ensures proper pain and symptom management, preventing complications. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address immediate post-operative care needs such as pain and dizziness management.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is using the RESPECT mnemonic to establishrapport, the “R” in RESPECT. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Connect on a social level. In the RESPECT mnemonic, "R" stands for "Rapport," which is crucial in building a therapeutic relationship with the patient. Connecting on a social level helps establish trust, empathy, and understanding between the nurse and the patient. This connection can lead to better communication, collaboration, and ultimately improved patient outcomes. Summary: - Choice B: Helping the patient overcome barriers is important but not specifically related to establishing rapport in the RESPECT mnemonic. - Choice C: Suspending judgment is important for effective communication but does not directly address building rapport. - Choice D: Stressing collaboration is valuable but does not specifically focus on connecting on a social level to build rapport.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment usingthe ETHNIC mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the “H”?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Healers. In the ETHNIC mnemonic, "H" stands for Healers, where the nurse assesses the individual's traditional healers, healthcare practices, and preferences for seeking healthcare. This is important in understanding the individual's cultural beliefs and practices related to health and treatment. Assessing "Health" (A) may be important, but it does not specifically address traditional healers. "History" (C) focuses on the individual's cultural background rather than healthcare practices. "Homeland" (D) pertains to the individual's place of origin, which is not directly related to healthcare communication.