ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are consistent with contact dermatitis. What aspect of care should the nurse prioritize when working with this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.
Question 3 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 4 of 9
A nurse obtained a telephone order from a primarycare provider for a patient in pain. Which chart entry should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes all necessary components for a complete and accurate chart entry. The nurse documents the date and time of the order, the medication prescribed (Morphine, 2 mg, IV every 4 hours), the indication for use (incisional pain), the intended recipient (Dr. Day), the nurse's name (J. Winds), and confirmation of the read-back procedure. This entry ensures clarity, accountability, and proper communication among healthcare team members. Choice A is incorrect because it misses the recipient of the order (Dr. Day) and only includes the nurse's name in the read-back. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the recipient of the order and the confirmation of the read-back procedure with the primary care provider. Choice D is incorrect because it does not specify the primary care provider who gave the order and misses the read-back confirmation with the provider.
Question 5 of 9
Which piece of data will the nurse use for “B” when using SBAR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse will use the history of angina for "B" when using SBAR because it provides relevant background information about the patient's cardiac condition. This helps the nurse understand the context of the current situation and make appropriate decisions. Pulse rate of 108 (choice B) is a specific vital sign and not an appropriate choice for "B" in SBAR. Having chest pain (choice A) is important but does not provide the necessary background information like the history of angina does. Oxygen being needed (choice D) is a current intervention and not relevant for "B" in SBAR, which focuses on providing background information.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Frequent douching. Douching disrupts the natural balance of vaginal flora, making the environment more susceptible to infections. High estrogen levels (A) can actually protect against vaginal infections. Late menarche (B) and nonpregnant state (C) are not direct risk factors for vaginal infections. In summary, frequent douching is the most significant risk factor as it disrupts the vaginal microbiome.
Question 7 of 9
A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retinopathy. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients with retinopathy due to the potential risk of worsening vision problems. Retinopathy is a serious eye condition commonly associated with diabetes, and using tadalafil can lead to further complications in the eyes. It is crucial for patients with retinopathy to avoid medications that can exacerbate their eye condition. Incorrect choices: A: Cataracts - Cataracts do not contraindicate the use of tadalafil. Tadalafil does not have a direct negative impact on cataracts. C: Hypotension - Hypotension is not a contraindication for tadalafil use. In fact, tadalafil can cause a drop in blood pressure, so it should be used with caution in patients with hypotension. D: Diabetic nephropathy - Diabetic nephropathy is not a direct contraindication for tadalafil use. Tadalafil is generally
Question 8 of 9
Which findings should the nurse follow up on afterremoval of a catheter from a patient? (Select allthat apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dribbling of urine. This finding should be followed up on after catheter removal because it may indicate urinary retention or incomplete bladder emptying, which can lead to complications such as urinary tract infection. A: Increasing fluid intake is important for overall hydration but is not a specific finding that requires follow-up after catheter removal. C: Voiding in small amounts may be a normal response initially after catheter removal and does not necessarily indicate a problem. D: Voiding within 6 hours of catheter removal is a positive sign of bladder function recovery and does not require immediate follow-up.
Question 9 of 9
A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is theproblem with the 14-year-old?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vulvodynia. Vulvodynia is characterized by chronic vulvar pain or discomfort, including stabbing pain and burning, without an identifiable cause. In this case, the young girl is experiencing these symptoms despite not being sexually active, ruling out other conditions like vulvitis (inflammation of the vulva), vaginitis (inflammation of the vagina), and Bartholin's cyst (fluid-filled swelling near the vaginal opening). The absence of sexual activity suggests that the pain is not related to an infection or trauma, further supporting the diagnosis of vulvodynia.