ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is theproblem with the 14-year-old?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vulvodynia. Vulvodynia is characterized by chronic vulvar pain or discomfort, including stabbing pain and burning, without an identifiable cause. In this case, the young girl is experiencing these symptoms despite not being sexually active, ruling out other conditions like vulvitis (inflammation of the vulva), vaginitis (inflammation of the vagina), and Bartholin's cyst (fluid-filled swelling near the vaginal opening). The absence of sexual activity suggests that the pain is not related to an infection or trauma, further supporting the diagnosis of vulvodynia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 5 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 6 of 9
Which piece of data will the nurse use for “B” when using SBAR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse will use the history of angina for "B" when using SBAR because it provides relevant background information about the patient's cardiac condition. This helps the nurse understand the context of the current situation and make appropriate decisions. Pulse rate of 108 (choice B) is a specific vital sign and not an appropriate choice for "B" in SBAR. Having chest pain (choice A) is important but does not provide the necessary background information like the history of angina does. Oxygen being needed (choice D) is a current intervention and not relevant for "B" in SBAR, which focuses on providing background information.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has just arrived to the floor after an enucleation procedure following a workplace accident in which his left eye was irreparably damaged. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the patients immediate postoperative recovery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing and addressing the patient's emotional needs. This should be prioritized because the patient has undergone a traumatic experience losing their eye due to a workplace accident. Emotions such as fear, anxiety, and grief are common postoperatively. Addressing these emotional needs is crucial for the patient's overall well-being and recovery. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but not the priority in this situation. Teaching about eye prostheses, depth perception, and medication regimen can be addressed once the patient's emotional needs are stabilized.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the urinarysystem. In which order will the nurse present the structures, following the flow of urine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is B: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra. 1. Kidneys filter blood and produce urine. 2. Ureters transport urine from kidneys to bladder. 3. Bladder stores urine until expelled. 4. Urethra carries urine from bladder out of the body. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the anatomical flow of urine through the urinary system.
Question 9 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.