Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: scalp. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that specifically affects the scalp. This infection is caused by dermatophytes, which thrive in warm and moist environments. It typically presents with symptoms such as scaling, itching, and hair loss on the scalp. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinea pedis (athlete's foot) affects the feet, oral thrush is a fungal infection of the mouth, and tinea manuum affects the hands. By process of elimination and understanding the specific characteristics of tinea capitis, we can determine that the scalp is the correct location for this fungal infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: scalp. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that specifically affects the scalp. This infection is caused by dermatophytes, which thrive in warm and moist environments. It typically presents with symptoms such as scaling, itching, and hair loss on the scalp. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinea pedis (athlete's foot) affects the feet, oral thrush is a fungal infection of the mouth, and tinea manuum affects the hands. By process of elimination and understanding the specific characteristics of tinea capitis, we can determine that the scalp is the correct location for this fungal infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Plasmids often carry antibiotic resistance genes, making choice C correct. Plasmids are circular DNA structures, not linear (A). They are found in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, not exclusively in gram-positive bacteria (B). Plasmids are separate from the bacterial chromosome, not part of it (D). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Galactomannan is a polysaccharide found in Aspergillus cell walls and is detected in patients with invasive aspergillosis. Free mannan is a polysaccharide found in Candida cell walls and is detected in patients with candidiasis. Therefore, detection of galactomannan and free mannan is specific for diagnosing Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as HIV infection, syphilis, and leptospirosis do not involve the detection of galactomannan or free mannan for diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).