Tick the luminal amebecide drug:

Questions 52

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Learning Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

Tick the luminal amebecide drug:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diloxanide. Diloxanide is a luminal amebicide, meaning it acts within the lumen of the intestines to target and eliminate amoebas residing there. This drug is specifically effective against amoebic cysts and is not absorbed systemically. Metronidazole (A) and Emetine (B) are tissue amebicides, which act systemically to target amoebas in tissues. Doxycycline (C) is an antibiotic commonly used for bacterial infections, not for treating amoebiasis. Therefore, Diloxanide (D) is the correct choice for a luminal amebicide drug.

Question 2 of 5

This drug blocks inactivated (but not activated) Na+ channels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procainamide. Procainamide blocks inactivated Na+ channels by binding to them preferentially when they are in the inactivated state. This mechanism helps decrease excitability in cardiac and neuronal tissues. Mexiletine (A) blocks both inactivated and activated Na+ channels, making it incorrect. Phenytoin (B) primarily blocks activated Na+ channels, not inactivated ones. Quinidine (D) blocks both inactivated and activated Na+ channels, so it is not the correct choice in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blockade of beta receptors of the vascular wall. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta receptors in the vascular wall, leading to reduced sympathetic stimulation and vasodilation, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect as atenolol primarily affects beta receptors, not large veins. Choice B is incorrect as atenolol does not directly affect epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol primarily acts at the beta receptors in the vascular wall rather than affecting sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor area.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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