ATI RN
Effects of Pharmacological Treatments on Clients Across a Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tick the drug, inhibiting viral proteases:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Saquinavir, which inhibits viral proteases. Proteases are enzymes that viruses use to replicate within host cells. By inhibiting these proteases, the virus's ability to replicate and spread is disrupted, thereby helping to control the viral infection. Option A) Rimantadine is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza A virus infections by inhibiting viral replication, but it does not target viral proteases. Option B) Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections by interfering with viral DNA synthesis, not viral proteases. Option D) Zalcitabine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV infections by inhibiting reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that HIV uses to replicate its genetic material, not viral proteases. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different pharmacological treatments is crucial for providing effective care to clients across the lifespan. Knowledge of how specific drugs target different stages of viral replication can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when selecting treatments for their patients.
Question 2 of 5
Fluorouracil belongs to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacological treatments, it is crucial for learners to understand the classification of drugs and their mechanisms of action. Fluorouracil, a widely used chemotherapy drug, belongs to the category of antimetabolites. Antimetabolites are a class of drugs that interfere with the normal metabolic processes of cells by mimicking natural substances within the cell. Fluorouracil specifically disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cancer cells. Option A, antibiotics, are drugs used to treat bacterial infections by targeting bacterial cell structures or processes, not cancer cells. Option C, plant alkaloids, are derived from plants and are commonly used in cancer treatment, but they work through a different mechanism than antimetabolites. Option D, bone marrow growth factor, is a substance that stimulates the production of blood cells and is not related to the mechanism of action of antimetabolites like fluorouracil. Educationally, understanding the classification of drugs like fluorouracil is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about treatment options for patients across the lifespan. This knowledge enables practitioners to select the most appropriate medications based on their mechanism of action and potential side effects, ultimately improving patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A patient shows prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. Blood test otherwise is normal. Which of the following is the most probably diagnosis for this patient’s condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prolonged PT and aPTT with otherwise normal blood tests (e.g., normal platelet count) suggest a deficiency in vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X), as in vitamin K deficiency (D). Hemophilia A (A) prolongs aPTT only (factor VIII), thrombocytopenia (B) affects bleeding time, von Willebrand disease (C) may prolong aPTT but affects platelets, and hypofibrinogenemia (E) is rare and not isolated to PT/aPTT prolongation.
Question 4 of 5
After seven days of treatment with sulfonamides a patient’s haemoglobin had decreased from 14.7 gm/100 ml to 10 gm/100 ml. The most likely cause of hemolysis in this patient is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sulfonamides are oxidative drugs that can trigger hemolysis in G6PD deficiency (D), an X-linked condition where RBCs lack sufficient NADPH to combat oxidative stress, leading to hemoglobin drop (14.7 to 10 g/dL). Sickle cell disease (A) requires a trigger like hypoxia, thalassemia minor (B) is mild, hereditary spherocytosis (C) isn’t drug-related, and Coombs-positive hemolysis (E) is autoimmune—G6PD fits the drug-induced timeline.
Question 5 of 5
A peripheral blood smear showing increase in numbers of neutrophils, band cells, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, basophils, eosinophils and platelets is most suggestive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Chronic myelocytic leukaemia. This is because an increase in the numbers of neutrophils, band cells, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is characteristic of chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML). CML is a type of leukemia that originates in the bone marrow and results in the overproduction of immature white blood cells. Option A) Acute myeloid leukaemia is incorrect because it typically presents with a different distribution of cells in the peripheral blood smear, often showing a predominance of blasts. Option B) Acute lymphoid leukaemia is also incorrect as it primarily involves abnormal lymphocytes in the peripheral blood smear, not the myeloid cells seen in this case. Option D) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is characterized by an increase in mature lymphocytes, not the myeloid cells observed in the peripheral blood smear described. Understanding the characteristic cell types seen in different types of leukemia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment selection. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals working in hematology/oncology to provide optimal care for clients with hematologic malignancies.