ATI RN
Drug and Dosage for ET Tube Cardiovascular Pharmacological Agents Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tick the drug for the treatment of a hepatic form of amebiasis:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Metronidazole or emetine): 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for hepatic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica in the liver. 2. Emetine is an alternative option for hepatic amebiasis treatment, especially in cases of resistance to metronidazole. 3. Both drugs have good tissue penetration and are effective against the protozoa causing hepatic amebiasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Diloxanide or iodoquinol - These drugs are primarily used for treating non-invasive intestinal amebiasis, not the hepatic form. B: Tetracycline or doxycycline - These antibiotics are not the first-line treatment for hepatic amebiasis. D: Erythromycin or azithromycin - These antibiotics are not effective against Entamoeba histolytica in the liver
Question 2 of 5
This drug is the most effective antiarrhythmic agent for both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Procainamide. Procainamide is a Class 1A antiarrhythmic agent that is effective for both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias. It works by blocking sodium channels, prolonging the action potential duration. This helps to stabilize the cardiac rhythm. Lidocaine (A) is more specific for ventricular arrhythmias. Verapamil (B) is a calcium channel blocker more suitable for supraventricular arrhythmias. Propranolol (C) is a beta-blocker that is effective for preventing arrhythmias but not as effective for acute treatment compared to procainamide.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following would be the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrochlorothiazide. This diuretic is appropriate for a patient with hypertension due to its ability to reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure. It is often recommended as a first-line treatment for essential hypertension. Propranolol (B) is a beta-blocker that may not be as effective as a diuretic in this case. Captopril (C) is an ACE inhibitor that may be used as an alternative, but not as the most appropriate choice. Clonidine (D) is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist and typically considered a second-line treatment option.
Question 4 of 5
A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.