Tick the drug for strongyloidiasis treatment:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the treatment of strongyloidiasis, the correct drug to use is Ivermectin (Option D). Ivermectin is an anthelmintic medication that is highly effective against Strongyloides stercoralis, the parasite responsible for causing strongyloidiasis. It works by paralyzing and killing the parasites, leading to their elimination from the body. Option A, Niclosamide, is an anthelmintic drug used to treat tapeworm infections, not strongyloidiasis. Option B, Praziquantel, is effective against schistosomiasis and some other parasitic infections, but not specifically for strongyloidiasis. Option C, Bithionol, is an older anthelmintic agent that is not commonly used today due to its side effects and potential toxicity. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate drug therapies for parasitic infections is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in areas where these infections are endemic. Knowing the correct drug for strongyloidiasis can ensure proper treatment and improve patient outcomes. It is essential for students and practitioners to differentiate between various anthelmintic medications and their indications to provide optimal care to patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Thiotepa. Thiotepa is an anticancer alkylating drug that belongs to the derivative of ethylenimine class. Alkylating agents work by attaching an alkyl group to DNA, which interferes with cell division and ultimately leads to cell death. Thiotepa is commonly used in chemotherapy to treat various types of cancer. Now let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Mercaptopurine is a purine analog antimetabolite, not an alkylating agent. It interferes with nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting enzymes involved in purine metabolism. C) Chlorambucil is an alkylating agent, but it belongs to the nitrogen mustard class, not the ethylenimine class like Thiotepa. D) Procarbazine is also an alkylating agent, but it is not a derivative of ethylenimine. It is part of the hydrazine class of alkylating agents. Educational Context: Understanding the classification of anticancer drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in oncology and pharmacology. Knowing the mechanisms of action and specific drug classes helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment regimens for cancer patients while minimizing adverse effects. By differentiating between various types of anticancer drugs, healthcare providers can improve patient outcomes and ensure safe and effective chemotherapy administration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Estrogens are not typically indicated for oncological practice due to their potential to stimulate the growth of hormone-sensitive tumors. In the context of cancer treatment, estrogens are contraindicated in most cases. The correct answer, option B, is cancer of the prostate. Estrogen therapy may be used in the treatment of advanced prostate cancer to lower testosterone levels, which can help slow tumor growth. Option A, leukemia, does not have an indication for estrogen therapy in oncology. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer and is not typically treated with estrogens. Option C, endometrial cancer, is also not a suitable indication for estrogens as estrogen exposure is a risk factor for endometrial cancer development. Option D, brain tumors, do not have an established indication for estrogen therapy in oncology practice. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the rationale behind treatment decisions in oncology. Understanding the mechanisms of action and the specific indications for different medications is essential for providing safe and effective care to patients with cancer. In this case, knowing that estrogens are generally contraindicated in oncology except for specific cases like prostate cancer is important for clinical decision-making.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant with several true properties: it binds to antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin (C), protamine sulfate reverses its effects (D), and partial thromboplastin time monitors its use (E, implied). Subcutaneous injection can cause hematomas, but it’s not avoided—it’s a common administration route (A is true). Heparin is not 'stored' in mast cells (B); it’s produced by mast cells and basophils but released, not stored, making B false.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lymphocyte predominance (D) Hodgkin’s lymphoma features 'popcorn cells' (lymphocytic and histiocytic cells) instead of classic Reed-Sternberg cells, with a lymphocyte-rich background and excellent prognosis. Nodular sclerosis (A) has classic RS cells, mixed cellularity (B) has frequent RS cells, lymphocyte depleted (C) is aggressive with RS cells, and lymphocyte-rich (E) has RS cells—only D matches the description.