ATI RN
The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tick the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Pyrantel for nematodosis treatment: 1. Pyrantel is a well-known anthelmintic drug effective against roundworms. 2. It works by causing paralysis in the worms, leading to their expulsion from the body. 3. Pyrantel is commonly used to treat various nematode infections in humans. 4. Niclosamide is more effective against tapeworms, not nematodes. 5. Praziquantel is used for tapeworm and fluke infections, not specifically for nematodes. 6. Bithionol is an older drug with limited use and not commonly used for nematodosis treatment.
Question 2 of 5
For which one of the following patients would it be most important to recommend an antihyperlipidemic drug at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the patient at highest risk for cardiovascular disease. Step 2: Assess patient characteristics - Patient 2 has diabetes and hypertension. Step 3: Diabetes and hypertension increase cardiovascular risk. Step 4: Antihyperlipidemic drugs reduce cardiovascular risk in patients with diabetes and hypertension. Step 5: Therefore, it is most important to recommend an antihyperlipidemic drug to Patient 2. Summary: - Patient 1: No specific risk factors mentioned. - Patient 3: No information provided to indicate high cardiovascular risk. - Patient 4: Age and gender alone do not warrant immediate antihyperlipidemic drug recommendation.
Question 3 of 5
Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of cardiovascular pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin is crucial for healthcare professionals. Unfractionated heparin works by binding to antithrombin III, which in turn inactivates clotting factors. In this case, the correct answer is D) All of the above because unfractionated heparin inactivates both factor Xa and factor IIa (thrombin). Option A) Xa is incorrect because it only refers to factor Xa, not factor IIa. Option B) lxa seems to be a typographical error and does not correspond to any known clotting factor. Option C) lla is also incorrect as it does not correspond to any relevant clotting factor involved in the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the specific interactions and targets of anticoagulant medications like unfractionated heparin. By knowing which clotting factors are affected, healthcare providers can better predict and manage the anticoagulant effects of medications, leading to improved patient care and outcomes in cardiovascular conditions.
Question 4 of 5
After oral administration peak concentration of digoxin is reached in
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is option D) 4 to 6 hours. Rationale: After oral administration, digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. It then undergoes distribution, binding to tissues, particularly in the heart. Digoxin has a relatively slow absorption rate and reaches peak plasma concentration in about 4 to 6 hours. This delayed peak concentration is due to factors such as the drug's absorption kinetics and distribution throughout the body. Why the other options are incorrect: A) 1 to 2 mins: This is incorrect because digoxin does not reach peak concentration in such a short timeframe. B) 30 to 60 mins: This is also incorrect as digoxin takes longer to reach peak plasma concentration than 30 to 60 minutes. C) 5 to 10 mins: Digoxin does not reach peak concentration within 5 to 10 minutes after oral administration. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacokinetics of drugs like digoxin is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in cardiology or pharmacology. Knowing the timing of peak concentration helps in determining the onset of action, duration of effect, and potential side effects of the drug. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective medication management in patients with cardiovascular conditions.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a heart client on digoxin and notes a potassium level of 2.5. What is the appropriate priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate priority nursing intervention is option C: The nurse asks to check the digoxin level as low potassium can increase digoxin toxicity. Rationale for the correct answer: A low potassium level can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Therefore, checking the digoxin level is essential to ensure that the client is not at risk for digoxin toxicity due to the low potassium level. Rationale for the incorrect options: A) Option A is incorrect because a potassium level of 2.5 is considered low and not within the normal range, requiring intervention. B) Option B is incorrect as simply asking for an order for potassium without addressing the potential interaction with digoxin does not address the immediate concern of digoxin toxicity. D) Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping digoxin can also lead to adverse effects, and it is crucial to monitor and manage the digoxin therapy appropriately. Educational context: Understanding the relationship between potassium levels and digoxin therapy is crucial for nurses caring for clients with heart conditions. Low potassium levels can predispose clients to digoxin toxicity, emphasizing the importance of close monitoring and appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety. Nurses must be able to recognize and respond to electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent potential life-threatening complications in cardiac patients.