ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Through which of the following does lymph return to the blood?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subclavian veins. Lymph returns to the blood through the subclavian veins because they receive lymphatic drainage from the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct. Lymphatic vessels merge into lymphatic ducts, which empty into the subclavian veins, allowing lymph to re-enter the bloodstream. The carotid arteries (A) carry oxygen-rich blood to the brain, the aorta (C) is the main artery of the body carrying oxygenated blood from the heart, and the inferior vena cava (B) returns deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not involved in the return of lymph to the blood.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is HIV positive should have the mouth examined for which oral problem common associated with AIDS?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.
Question 3 of 5
Which client statement would indicate to the nurse that the client with polycythemia vera is in need further of instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using two pillows to raise the head can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombosis in a client with polycythemia vera. This condition involves an increased production of red blood cells, leading to thicker blood and potential clot formation. Elevating the head too much can impede blood flow, exacerbating the risk of clotting. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements indicating good self-care practices and physical activity, which are beneficial for clients with polycythemia vera to improve circulation and overall health.
Question 4 of 5
An oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which one is accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Men can develop breast cancer. This is accurate because although breast cancer is more common in women, men can also develop the disease due to the presence of breast tissue in their bodies. This is a crucial point to emphasize to raise awareness about breast cancer among men. Incorrect choices: A: Mammography is not the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer, as it may not detect all types of breast cancer. B: Breast cancer is not the leading killer of women of childbearing age, as there are other leading causes of death in this age group. C: Breast cancer does not always require a mastectomy; treatment options vary depending on the individual case. Summary: Choice D is correct as it highlights the important fact that men can also develop breast cancer, which is often overlooked. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to inaccuracies or oversimplifications of the facts related to breast cancer detection, statistics, and treatment.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.