Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:

Questions 71

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following would indicate that the patient has a normal corneal light reflex?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a normal corneal light reflex involves light being reflected at the same spot in both eyes. This indicates that both eyes are aligned properly and focusing light in the same direction. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to accommodation, not the corneal light reflex. Choice B is incorrect as convergence is related to eye movement, not the corneal light reflex. Choice C is incorrect as pupil constriction in response to light is known as the pupillary light reflex, not the corneal light reflex.

Question 3 of 9

A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.

Question 4 of 9

An oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which one is accurate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Men can develop breast cancer. This is accurate because although breast cancer is more common in women, men can also develop the disease due to the presence of breast tissue in their bodies. This is a crucial point to emphasize to raise awareness about breast cancer among men. Incorrect choices: A: Mammography is not the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer, as it may not detect all types of breast cancer. B: Breast cancer is not the leading killer of women of childbearing age, as there are other leading causes of death in this age group. C: Breast cancer does not always require a mastectomy; treatment options vary depending on the individual case. Summary: Choice D is correct as it highlights the important fact that men can also develop breast cancer, which is often overlooked. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to inaccuracies or oversimplifications of the facts related to breast cancer detection, statistics, and treatment.

Question 5 of 9

A female client age 66 is admitted ff a nephrolithomy. One of her laboratory tests reveals a urinary tract infection. Which would be the best nursing action in her case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake of 3000ml/day helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of infection spread. Adequate hydration also prevents further stone formation. Incorrect Choices: A: Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions may not directly address the urinary tract infection. B: Administering narcotic analgesics may mask symptoms but not treat the root cause of the infection. D: Suggesting herbs or spices does not address the need for adequate fluid intake to manage the urinary tract infection.

Question 6 of 9

What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because pursed lip breathing helps to slow down and control the exhalation process, allowing the individual to exhale a smaller volume of air with more force. This helps to prevent air trapping in the lungs, improve oxygen exchange, and reduce shortness of breath. B: Incorrect - Pursed lip breathing does not increase expiration but rather controls it. C: Incorrect - While pursed lip breathing can promote deep breathing and better oxygen exchange, its primary purpose is to regulate exhalation volume. D: Incorrect - Pursed lip breathing does not specifically target the upper thorax but rather facilitates a more efficient breathing pattern by reducing air trapping in the lungs.

Question 7 of 9

What is the primary purpose of the implementation step in the nursing process?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.

Question 8 of 9

JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.

Question 9 of 9

A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days