Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Close the roller clamp on the new tubing after priming it. This step ensures that the tubing is primed with the solution and ready for use while preventing air from entering the central line. Option A is incorrect because using the present solution may introduce contamination. Option B is incorrect as connecting tubing before running fluid can introduce air into the line. Option D is incorrect as positioning the client on the right side does not prevent air embolism during tubing change.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. This type of diagnosis focuses on improving the client's well-being and maximizing their health potential. By adding Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination to the care plan, the nurse acknowledges the patient's willingness to learn self-catheterization, which aligns with health promotion. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Risk) implies potential harm, B (Problem focused) focuses on current issues, and D (Collaborative problem) involves multiple healthcare providers working together on a specific problem.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a soft toothbrush and electric razor. Patients with bone marrow depression are at increased risk of bleeding due to low platelet count. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor helps prevent injury to the gums and skin, reducing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A: Sleeping with the head of the bed slightly elevated is not directly related to preventing bleeding in bone marrow depression. C: Drinking citrus juices may irritate the stomach lining and are not specifically indicated for preventing bleeding. D: Increasing activity level and frequent ambulation may increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a patient with bone marrow depression.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Etiology. Etiology in a nursing diagnosis refers to the cause or contributing factors of the identified problem. In this case, the large scar over the left side of the face is the reason for the disturbed self-esteem. It is the underlying factor that is leading to the self-esteem issue. The problem itself is the disturbed self-esteem, the defining characteristics are the signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis, and client need is the desired outcome or goal for the client. In summary, the presence of the large scar is the cause or etiology of the disturbed self-esteem, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.