ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Three days after admission Ms. CC continued to have frequent stools. Her oral intake of both fluids and solids are poor. Her physician ordered parenteral hyperalimentation. Hyperalimentation solutions are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperosmolar solutions used primarily to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Rationale: 1. Hyperalimentation solutions are designed to provide essential nutrients intravenously. 2. Hyperosmolar solutions have a higher osmolarity compared to body fluids, providing concentrated nutrition. 3. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body breaks down more protein than it synthesizes, requiring additional protein intake. 4. Hyperosmolar solutions can provide adequate protein and nutrients to reverse negative nitrogen balance. Summary: A: Hypotonic solutions do not increase osmotic pressure, but rather decrease it. B: Hypertonic solutions are not primarily used for hydration in this context. C: Alkalizing solutions are not the primary purpose of hyperalimentation and do not directly address cellular sweating.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse identify as an abnormal finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would identify platelets at 115,000/ul as an abnormal finding because it is below the normal range of 150,000-450,000/ul. Low platelet count can lead to increased bleeding risk. RBC count and hematocrit levels are within normal ranges, making them normal findings. Option D is incorrect as platelets are abnormal.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to gather relevant information and focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps establish rapport and ensures the patient is actively involved in the conversation. Incorrect Choices: A: Beginning with introductions is important, but after setting the agenda, it is more crucial to address the patient's concerns. C: Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes is not appropriate as it may rush the patient and hinder open communication. D: Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this stage and does not address the patient's immediate needs.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home. A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes. C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement. D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.
Question 5 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drug Compliance. After a CVA (stroke), it is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand and adhere to his prescribed medications. Medications help prevent further strokes and manage underlying conditions. Drug compliance ensures optimal treatment outcomes. Emergency Numbers (A) are important but not the priority post-stroke. Relaxation techniques (B) may be helpful but not as critical as medication adherence. Dietary prescription (D) is important but not as urgent as drug compliance in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
Question 8 of 9
What is the primary purpose of the implementation step in the nursing process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.
Question 9 of 9
Which assessment finding would prompt the Rn to suspect compartment syndrome in a patient with a long leg cast?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: severe, unrelieved pain. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment leading to decreased blood flow and tissue damage. Severe, unrelieved pain is a hallmark sign as the pressure builds up. Weak movement of the patient's toes (choice A) could indicate nerve damage but is not specific to compartment syndrome. Decreased pedal pulses (choice B) could suggest vascular compromise but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Presence of foot pallor (choice D) could indicate poor circulation but is not a definitive sign of compartment syndrome.