This drug is contraindicated in patients with moderate to severe heart failure:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, both Nifedipine and Verapamil are contraindicated in patients with moderate to severe heart failure due to their negative inotropic effects. These drugs can worsen heart failure symptoms by further reducing cardiac output. Nifedipine and Verapamil are calcium channel blockers that can lead to decreased contractility of the heart muscle, exacerbating heart failure. Choice A (Nifedipine) and choice B (Verapamil) are incorrect because they can be harmful in patients with heart failure. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as both drugs should be avoided in this patient population.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Growth hormone (somatotropin GH). The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces growth hormone. This hormone regulates growth, metabolism, and body composition. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) are produced by the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone, respectively. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) is also produced by the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of growth hormone. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly originates from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, unlike the other options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Sulphonylureas can cause hypoglycemia, weight gain, and gastrointestinal issues. Step 2: Biguanides can cause gastrointestinal issues and lactic acidosis. Step 3: Biguanides have fewer side effects compared to sulphonylureas. Step 4: Therefore, the statement that side effects of sulphonylureas are less than biguanides is FALSE. Summary: Choice B is correct because biguanides have fewer side effects than sulphonylureas, making the statement false. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the statement is not true for all options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Indomethacin is an indol derivative due to its chemical structure containing an indole ring. 2. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. 3. Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. 4. Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. Summary: B (Indomethacin) is the correct answer as it is the only option that is an indol derivative. A, C, and D are incorrect as they belong to different chemical classes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunoglobulins. Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IV IgG) preparations are derived from pooled human plasma containing a broad spectrum of antibodies. IV IgG is used for replacement therapy in immunodeficiency disorders and autoimmune diseases. Monoclonal antibodies (A) are specific antibodies produced by identical immune cells, not a class of IV IgG. Immunosuppressive agents (B) are drugs that suppress the immune system to prevent rejection in organ transplant patients. Interferons (C) are signaling proteins released by cells in response to pathogens, not a class of IV IgG. In summary, IV IgG preparations belong to the class of immunoglobulins, not monoclonal antibodies, immunosuppressive agents, or interferons.