This drug is an effective bronchodilator:

Questions 52

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

NCLEX Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

This drug is an effective bronchodilator:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, None of the above. Nifedipine and Verapamil are calcium channel blockers used for hypertension and angina, not as bronchodilators. Nifedipine can even cause bronchoconstriction as a side effect. Therefore, they are not effective bronchodilators. A and B are incorrect choices.

Question 2 of 5

The posterior pituitary does NOT secret:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Growth hormone. The posterior pituitary gland only secretes Vasopressin (A) and Oxytocin (B). Growth hormone (C) is actually secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, option C is incorrect. Option D is also incorrect as the posterior pituitary does secrete Vasopressin and Oxytocin.

Question 3 of 5

Biguanides are used in the following conditions EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct: 1. Biguanides like metformin are not used in hyperglycemic shock due to their slower onset of action. 2. In hyperglycemic shock, rapid-acting medications like insulin are needed for immediate correction. 3. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because biguanides are commonly used as an initial treatment for type 2 diabetes to improve insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose production in the liver.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following NSAIDs is a pyrazolone derivative?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Metamizole (Analgin). Metamizole is a pyrazolone derivative due to its chemical structure containing a pyrazolone ring. Ibuprofen (A) is a propionic acid derivative, Indomethacin (B) is an indole derivative, and Diclofenac (D) is a phenylacetic acid derivative. Pyrazolone derivatives like Metamizole are known for their analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties.

Question 5 of 5

Mechanism of action of I.V. IgG preparation is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because I.V. IgG preparations compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies. This blocks the binding of autoantibodies to their target antigens, thereby preventing autoimmune reactions. Choice A is incorrect as I.V. IgG does not inhibit CD3 receptors. Choice B is incorrect as it does not inhibit calcineurin. Choice C is incorrect as I.V. IgG does not induce complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions