This drug is a non-peptide angiotensin II receptor antagonist:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Losartan is a non-peptide angiotensin II receptor antagonist. 2. Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. 3. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. 4. Diazoxide is a potassium channel activator, used for hyperinsulinism. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it specifically targets angiotensin II receptors, unlike the other choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Repaglinide (Prandin), as it is not a biguanide but a meglitinide used for managing type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin release. Metformin is a biguanide commonly used as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes due to its efficacy and safety profile. Phenformin is a biguanide that was withdrawn from the market due to its association with lactic acidosis. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea, not a biguanide, and works by stimulating insulin release from the pancreas. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is not an oral hypoglycemic biguanide.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. COX-1 is constitutively expressed and involved in homeostatic functions, while COX-2 is inducible during inflammation to facilitate the inflammatory response. COX-1 is responsible for maintaining normal physiological functions, such as protecting the stomach lining and regulating blood flow, while COX-2 is primarily involved in producing prostaglandins during inflammation. Therefore, COX-1 is not induced during inflammation, and COX-2 is not homeostatic. Choice A is incorrect because COX-1, not COX-2, is homeostatic. Choice C is incorrect because there is a clear distinction between the functions of COX-1 and COX-2. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are correct; only option B is accurate based on the roles of COX-1 and COX-2 in the body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GI disturbance. Cyclosporine A is known to cause gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances as a common side effect, including nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. This is due to its impact on the digestive system. Choice A (Diarrhea) is too specific and not the most common side effect. Choice B (Headache) is not a typical side effect of cyclosporine A. Choice D (Immunosuppression) is the intended therapeutic effect of cyclosporine A, not a side effect. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the common side effects associated with cyclosporine A.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D (Pellagra) is correct: 1. Dermatitis: Pellagra is characterized by skin rashes due to niacin deficiency. 2. Diarrhoea: Niacin deficiency in Pellagra affects the digestive system, leading to diarrhea. 3. Dementia: Niacin deficiency affects the brain, causing neurological symptoms like dementia. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Dry beriberi is caused by thiamine (B1) deficiency, not niacin. B: Pyridoxine deficiency (vitamin B6) does not typically present with dermatitis, diarrhea, or dementia. C: Scurvy is caused by vitamin C deficiency and is characterized by bleeding gums, weakness, and fatigue, not the symptoms mentioned in the question.