ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Safety Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
This drug is a controller of water-salt and acid-basic state:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Disolum, Trisolum. These drugs are electrolyte solutions used to control water-salt and acid-base balance. Disolum contains sodium chloride and Trisolum contains sodium bicarbonate, both essential for maintaining electrolyte balance. Option A, B, and C are not directly involved in regulating water-salt and acid-base balance. Polyglucinum is a colloidal solution used for volume replacement, Haemodesum is a plasma substitute, and Glucose isotonic for injections is a source of energy and not specifically for electrolyte balance.
Question 2 of 5
Tick the drug used for trypanosomosis treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Melarsoprol. Melarsoprol is an arsenical compound used specifically for the treatment of trypanosomosis, caused by Trypanosoma parasites. It is effective in treating both forms of the disease, African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) and American trypanosomiasis (Chagas disease). Metronidazole (B) is used for treating anaerobic bacterial infections, not trypanosomiasis. Tetracycline (C) is an antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacterial infections, but not against trypanosomiasis. Quinidine (D) is used to treat malaria and certain heart rhythm disorders, but not trypanosomiasis.
Question 3 of 5
Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of alkylsulfonate:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Busulfan. Busulfan is an alkylating agent that works by attaching alkyl groups to DNA, preventing cancer cell growth. Fluorouracil (A) is a pyrimidine analog, Carboplatin (B) is a platinum-based compound, and Vinblastine (C) is a vinca alkaloid - all these are not alkylating agents. Busulfan is specifically derived from alkylsulfonate, making it the correct choice for an anticancer alkylating drug.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs was most likely added to the patient's therapy resulting in his present complaint?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause constipation, which is a common complaint in patients. Hydralazine (A) can cause reflex tachycardia, Propranolol (B) is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, and Clonidine (D) is an alpha-2 agonist that can cause hypotension. Therefore, based on the patient's complaint of constipation, Verapamil is the most likely drug added to the patient's therapy.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following would be an appropriate therapeutic adjustment for the 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because discontinuing digoxin and starting losartan is the appropriate therapeutic adjustment for a 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure. Digoxin is not recommended in the acute phase of heart failure as it can worsen symptoms. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is beneficial in heart failure by improving outcomes and reducing hospitalizations. Discontinuing digoxin eliminates the risk of toxicity and adverse effects. Other choices are incorrect because adding potassium supplementation (Choice A) can increase the risk of hyperkalemia, adding atropine (Choice B) is not indicated in heart failure, and increasing furosemide dose (Choice C) may lead to electrolyte imbalances without addressing the underlying cause.