This drug is a Class II antiarrhythmic drug:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propranolol. Class II antiarrhythmics are beta-blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. Propranolol specifically is a non-selective beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and blood pressure, making it effective in treating certain types of arrhythmias. Flecainide (A) is a Class IC antiarrhythmic, Lidocaine (C) is a Class IB antiarrhythmic, and Verapamil (D) is a Class IV antiarrhythmic. These drugs have different mechanisms of action and are not classified as Class II antiarrhythmics.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Ergot and indol derivatives, along with NSAIDs, are indeed main agents for acute migraine attack treatment. Ergot derivatives like ergotamine and dihydroergotamine are vasoconstrictors that help alleviate migraine symptoms by reducing blood flow in the brain. Indol derivatives like sumatriptan are serotonin receptor agonists that also help relieve migraines. NSAIDs like ibuprofen can help reduce inflammation and pain associated with migraines. Therefore, the statement is true. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - This choice is incorrect as the statement in the question is true. C: Null - This choice is incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information to the question. D: All - This choice is incorrect as it implies that all agents are main agents for acute migraine attack treatment, which is not accurate.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Sulphonylureas are a class of drugs that stimulate insulin release. Step 2: They act by binding to the sulphonylurea receptor on beta islet cells of the pancreas. Step 3: This binding triggers a cascade of events leading to insulin release. Step 4: Insulin then helps lower blood glucose levels. Conclusion: Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the mechanism of action of sulphonylureas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary mode of action of sulphonylureas.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because glucocorticoids have a multi-faceted anti-inflammatory effect. 1. Glucocorticoids inhibit phospholipase A2, reducing prostaglandins and leukotrienes, which are pro-inflammatory mediators. 2. They also decrease macrophage migration to the site of inflammation, reducing inflammation. 3. Glucocorticoids decrease capillary permeability, which helps in reducing swelling and edema. Therefore, all of the above mechanisms contribute to the anti-inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the key mechanisms involved in the anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Histamine H1 antagonists are commonly used to treat allergic reactions by blocking histamine release. Step 2: Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy can be treated with H1 antagonists like doxylamine. Step 3: Sleep disorders are not typically treated with H1 antagonists, but rather with medications targeting other pathways. Step 4: Seizure states are not a common indication for H1 antagonists and have no direct relation to histamine pathways. Step 5: Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical indications for histamine H1 antagonists.