ATI RN
Peter Attia Drugs Cardiovascular PCSK9 Questions
Question 1 of 5
This drug inhibits the synthesis of new Na+ channels in the collecting duct.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C) Pro le R. The drug mentioned in the question is a PCSK9 inhibitor, not a drug that inhibits Na+ channels in the collecting duct. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the drug mentioned in the question. Educationally, understanding pharmacology requires a strong foundation in drug mechanisms of action and their physiological effects. By analyzing the specific drug mentioned in the question and its function, students can enhance their critical thinking skills and apply their knowledge to differentiate between drugs with different mechanisms of action. This question also reinforces the importance of paying attention to details and not making assumptions based on partial information. Furthermore, by explaining why the incorrect options are wrong, students can deepen their understanding of drug classes and their respective targets. This process helps learners not only in answering exam questions correctly but also in clinical practice by ensuring they have a solid grasp of pharmacological principles and drug actions.
Question 2 of 5
If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of treating acute myocardial infarction with a fibrinolytic drug, the most likely adverse effect is a hemorrhagic stroke. This is because fibrinolytic drugs work by breaking down blood clots, which can increase the risk of bleeding complications, such as a hemorrhagic stroke, where a blood vessel in the brain ruptures. Option A, acute renal failure, is less likely to occur as a direct result of fibrinolytic drug use in the treatment of myocardial infarction. Option B, development of antiplatelet antibodies, is not a common adverse effect of fibrinolytic drugs specifically. Option C, encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction, is not a known adverse effect associated with fibrinolytic drugs. In an educational context, understanding the potential adverse effects of medications used in the treatment of cardiovascular conditions is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions and provide safe and effective care to patients. Recognizing the risks and benefits of different treatment options is essential in optimizing patient outcomes and minimizing harm.
Question 3 of 5
A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Increase. Explanation: When a patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, a medication combination known to interact with anticoagulants, it can lead to an increase in the international normalized ratio (INR). Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim can inhibit the metabolism of warfarin, increasing its anticoagulant effect and leading to a higher INR. This interaction can potentially increase the risk of bleeding in patients. Why others are wrong: B) Decrease: This is incorrect because the interaction between sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim and oral anticoagulants typically leads to an increase in the INR due to enhanced anticoagulant effect. C) Remain unchanged: This is incorrect as the interaction between these medications is known to impact the INR values, leading to changes rather than remaining stable. Educational context: Understanding drug interactions is crucial in healthcare to prevent adverse effects and ensure optimal patient care. Healthcare providers need to be aware of potential interactions between medications, like the one discussed here, to make informed decisions when prescribing or adjusting drug regimens for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Monitoring INR levels and adjusting anticoagulant doses accordingly can help manage and prevent complications from drug interactions.
Question 4 of 5
Drug of choice for digitalis induced arrhythmia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of digitalis-induced arrhythmias, the drug of choice is Phenytoin (Option B). Phenytoin is a class IB antiarrhythmic agent that helps stabilize cardiac cell membranes and prevent further arrhythmias caused by digitalis toxicity. Propranolol (Option A) is a non-selective beta-blocker and can worsen digitalis-induced arrhythmias by further slowing conduction through the AV node. Xylocaine (Option C) is a local anesthetic and not indicated for the treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias. Phenylephrine (Option D) is a sympathomimetic agent and does not address the underlying mechanism of digitalis toxicity. In an educational context, it is important for healthcare professionals to understand the appropriate pharmacological interventions for various types of arrhythmias. Digitalis-induced arrhythmias require specific management strategies, and selecting the correct antiarrhythmic agent like Phenytoin can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes. Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs and their effects on cardiac electrophysiology is crucial in making informed treatment decisions in clinical practice.
Question 5 of 5
The client is on hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin. What effect can the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases potassium, increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to its mechanism of action of increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. Digoxin, on the other hand, is a medication used to treat heart conditions but has a narrow therapeutic range. Low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity as digoxin's effects are potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not increase digoxin levels; in fact, it can lead to decreased levels due to increased excretion. Option B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can decrease digoxin levels but the focus here is on the risk of toxicity due to hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect as there is no evidence to support that digoxin increases the effectiveness of hydrochlorothiazide. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of understanding potential drug interactions and adverse effects when administering multiple medications to a patient. It underscores the need for healthcare providers to monitor electrolyte levels, especially potassium, in patients taking both hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin to prevent adverse outcomes like digoxin toxicity.