ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Review Questions
Question 1 of 5
This drug has a little or no direct effect on chronotropy and dromotropy at normal doses:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Nifedipine) because it is a calcium channel blocker that primarily acts on vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation without significant effects on heart rate (chronotropy) or conduction velocity (dromotropy). Diltiazem and Verapamil, choices B and C, are also calcium channel blockers but have more pronounced negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects due to their additional actions on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because Nifedipine specifically has minimal direct effects on chronotropy and dromotropy compared to Diltiazem and Verapamil.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following organ hormones is a target for growth hormone (somatotropine GH)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin-like growth factors (IGF somatomedins). Growth hormone stimulates the liver to produce IGF, which is the main mediator of GH effects on growth. IGF acts on various tissues to promote growth and development. Glucocorticoids (A) are not direct targets of GH. Triiodothyronine (C) and testosterone (D) have roles in growth but are not primary targets of GH action.
Question 3 of 5
Glucagon is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because glucagon is indeed a peptide consisting of a single chain of 29 amino acids. This is a known fact in biochemistry. Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a key role in regulating blood sugar levels. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Glucagon is not a glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 6000. This is not a characteristic of glucagon. C: Glucagon is not a fructooligosaccharide. It is a peptide hormone, not a type of carbohydrate. D: Glucagon is not a small protein with a molecular weight of 5808 having a disulfide linkage. While glucagon does have disulfide linkages, its molecular weight is not 5808.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following NSAIDs is an oxicam derivative?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piroxicam. Piroxicam is an oxicam derivative because it belongs to the oxicam class of NSAIDs. It is characterized by its oxicam structure containing a 1,2-benzothiazine ring. The other options, Indomethacin, Meclofenamic acid, and Diclofenac, do not have the oxicam structure. Indomethacin is an indole derivative, Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, and Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative. Therefore, Piroxicam is the correct choice based on its specific chemical structure that classifies it as an oxicam derivative.
Question 5 of 5
Indication for I.V. IgG preparation administration is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prophylaxis of certain infections. IV IgG preparations are commonly used for prophylaxis against infections in patients with primary immunodeficiencies or those undergoing immunosuppressive therapy. This helps provide temporary immunity to specific pathogens. A: Kaposi's sarcoma - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of Kaposi's sarcoma. B: Acute rejection of organ transplant - IV IgG preparations are not used to treat organ rejection. C: Condyloma acuminatum - IV IgG preparations are not indicated for the treatment of condyloma acuminatum. In summary, the correct indication for IV IgG preparation administration is for prophylaxis of certain infections to boost immunity in immunocompromised patients, while the other choices are unrelated to its primary use.