ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.
Question 2 of 9
The optochin sensitivity test demonstrates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
Enzymes that remove functional groups from a substrate without adding water, or that add functional groups to a double bond, are called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: lyases. Lyases are enzymes that catalyze the breaking of chemical bonds without the addition of water. They can remove functional groups from substrates or add functional groups to double bonds without the use of water. A: Oxidoreductases involve the transfer of electrons. B: Transferases transfer functional groups from one molecule to another. C: Hydrolases catalyze the breaking of bonds by adding water.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to the hospital. Some arachnids and insects have been found in his flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of epidemic typhus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lice. Lice, specifically body lice (Pediculus humanus corporis), are known carriers of the pathogen Rickettsia prowazekii, which causes epidemic typhus. Body lice are commonly found in unsanitary conditions and can transmit the bacteria through their bites. Spiders (choice B), bed-bugs (choice C), and cockroaches (choice D) are not known vectors of epidemic typhus. Spiders are predators that do not transmit diseases to humans, while bed-bugs and cockroaches are associated with other health issues but not epidemic typhus transmission.
Question 5 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing exotoxins?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are all capable of producing exotoxins. Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause damage to the host. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, causing tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxin and toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Escherichia coli can produce Shiga toxin and heat-labile toxin. Therefore, all three bacteria listed can produce exotoxins, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the bacteria capable of producing exotoxins.
Question 7 of 9
The neonatal infection referred to as “sticky eye†is caused by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus. Staphylococcus is a common bacteria that can cause neonatal conjunctivitis, also known as "sticky eye." Staphylococcal conjunctivitis presents with symptoms like eye redness, discharge, and swelling. Streptococcus (choice A) typically causes throat infections, herpes simplex (choice B) causes genital or oral sores, and Escherichia (choice D) is a bacteria commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and is not typically associated with neonatal conjunctivitis. Therefore, the most likely pathogen causing "sticky eye" in newborns is Staphylococcus.
Question 8 of 9
What structure allows bacteria to exchange genetic material?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pili. Pili are hair-like appendages on the surface of bacteria that facilitate the exchange of genetic material through a process called conjugation. During conjugation, bacteria can transfer plasmids and other genetic material to neighboring bacteria through pili. This allows for the exchange of beneficial traits like antibiotic resistance. Choice B, Flagella, are involved in bacterial movement and not in genetic material exchange. Choice C, Endospores, are protective structures formed by bacteria in response to harsh conditions, but they are not involved in genetic material exchange. Choice D, Capsules, are protective layers around bacteria that help in adherence to surfaces and evasion of the immune system, but they do not play a role in genetic material exchange.
Question 9 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.