ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.
Question 2 of 9
Gram-negative, capsulated bacteria with capsule, lactose-positive colonies. Isolated for the first time in pneumonia, but have more important role in urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, nosocomial infections:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is gram-negative, capsulated, and forms lactose-positive colonies. It was first isolated in pneumonia but is more commonly associated with urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, and nosocomial infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae fits all the characteristics mentioned in the question, making it the correct choice. Incorrect choices: A: Staphylococcus aureus is gram-positive and does not have a capsule. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is also gram-positive and does not fit the description given. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an acid-fast bacterium associated with tuberculosis, but it is neither gram-negative nor lactose-positive.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Salmonella enterica, Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae) are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Salmonella causes gastroenteritis, E. coli can lead to severe food poisoning, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera. Therefore, choosing "All of the above" encompasses the most common bacteria linked to foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not cover the full range of bacteria typically involved in foodborne illnesses.
Question 4 of 9
A child with fever and swollen lymph nodes had a Gram-stained smear revealing Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. This bacterium causes the plague, which presents with fever and swollen lymph nodes. The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of Yersinia pestis. B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, which presents differently and does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the question. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain and does not typically present with fever and swollen lymph nodes.
Question 5 of 9
In the South and Central America there can be found a species of trypanosomes that is the causative agent of Chagas disease. What animal is the infection carrier specific to this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Triatomine bug. Triatomine bugs, also known as "kissing bugs," are the specific carrier of the trypanosomes that cause Chagas disease. These bugs transmit the parasite through their feces, which contain the infectious forms of the trypanosomes. When the bug bites a human or animal, it defecates near the bite wound, allowing the parasites to enter the bloodstream through the broken skin. Mosquitoes (B) transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever, not Chagas disease. Tsetse flies (C) are known for transmitting African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), not Chagas disease. Cockroaches (D) are not known to transmit Chagas disease.
Question 6 of 9
The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.
Question 7 of 9
The generation time of Escherichia Coli is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing botulism and produces highly heat-resistant spores, while Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of anthrax and also forms spores. Choice A is incorrect because only Clostridium botulinum is mentioned, not Bacillus anthracis. Choice B is incorrect because only Bacillus anthracis is mentioned, not Clostridium botulinum. Choice D is incorrect as it states that none of the bacteria can form spores, which is false based on the characteristics of Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis.
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.