ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.
Question 2 of 9
The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: intravenous administration. This route bypasses the first-pass metabolism, allowing the drug to directly enter the bloodstream for immediate distribution. In contrast, on the skin (A) and sublingual (D) routes have slower absorption rates due to barriers like skin layers or mucous membranes. Intramuscular (C) absorption is slower than intravenous due to slower perfusion rates in muscle tissues. Overall, intravenous administration provides the fastest and most direct route for drug absorption, making it the most rapid method.
Question 3 of 9
Gram-negative rods producing red colonies on Endo agar were isolated from a fecal sample. The bacteria were lactose-fermenting. What microorganism is likely responsible?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose, leading to red colonies on Endo agar. This bacterium is commonly found in the human gut and is known for its ability to ferment lactose. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods but do not ferment lactose, so they would not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Proteus is a Gram-negative rod that is not known for its lactose-fermenting ability and would not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, E. coli is the most likely microorganism responsible for the red colonies on Endo agar.
Question 4 of 9
The etiological agent of Q-fever is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coxiella burnetii. Q-fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii. It is not caused by viruses like Bunyaviridae or Filoviridae. Rickettsia conorii causes Mediterranean spotted fever, not Q-fever. Coxiella burnetii is the only bacterium among the choices known to be the etiological agent of Q-fever.
Question 5 of 9
An etiological cause of hospital-acquired infections could be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of microorganisms, including opportunistic pathogens and obligate pathogens such as bacteria or viruses. Opportunistic microorganisms take advantage of weakened immune systems in hospital patients, while obligate pathogens are capable of causing infections in healthy individuals. Therefore, all the choices are correct in this context as they represent potential etiological causes of hospital-acquired infections.
Question 6 of 9
In which of the following especially dangerous infections, the respiratory tract is not damaged:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cholera. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and primarily affects the intestines, leading to severe watery diarrhea and dehydration. It does not damage the respiratory tract. Choice A, Tularemia, affects the respiratory tract and other organs. Choice B, Plague, can cause respiratory symptoms like cough and difficulty breathing. Choice C, Anthrax, can affect the respiratory tract if inhaled in its spore form.
Question 7 of 9
This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Salmonella enterica, Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae) are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Salmonella causes gastroenteritis, E. coli can lead to severe food poisoning, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera. Therefore, choosing "All of the above" encompasses the most common bacteria linked to foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not cover the full range of bacteria typically involved in foodborne illnesses.
Question 9 of 9
Autoclaving will usually destroy/inactivate all fungi, bacteria, viruses, and most bacterial spores but will not necessarily eliminate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prions. Autoclaving, a method of sterilization using high pressure and steam, is effective at destroying most microorganisms including fungi, bacteria, viruses, and most bacterial spores due to denaturation of their proteins and nucleic acids. However, prions are highly resistant infectious proteins that are not easily eliminated by autoclaving. Prions can withstand high temperatures and pressure, making them a challenge to eradicate. Neurotoxins (A), protozoan cysts (C), and mycoplasmas (D) are susceptible to autoclaving and would be destroyed during the process.