ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
This condition has difficulty in progressing stimuli and new information. Alzheimer`s is the most common form of which of these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia. Dementia is a general term for a decline in mental ability that becomes severe enough to interfere with daily life. It can affect memory, thinking skills, and the ability to perform everyday tasks. Alzheimer's disease specifically is a progressive brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and eventually impairs the ability to carry out simple tasks. Therefore, the provided condition of having difficulty in processing stimuli and new information aligns with the symptoms commonly seen in individuals with Alzheimer's disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for managing hypertension, the nurse should monitor closely for signs of hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors can affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion and impaired potassium excretion by the kidneys. As a result, potassium levels in the blood may increase, leading to hyperkalemia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with abdominal pain, fever, and peripheral blood smear showing fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes). Laboratory tests reveal elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin, and increased indirect bilirubin. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare blood disorder characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, neurological abnormalities, and renal dysfunction. The peripheral blood smear in TTP typically shows fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes) due to mechanical destruction within small blood vessels. Laboratory findings in TTP commonly include elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin (as it is consumed in the clearance of free hemoglobin), and increased indirect bilirubin due to increased red blood cell breakdown. This combination of clinical presentation and laboratory abnormalities is classic for TTP. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) may present similarly but is more commonly associated with renal dysfunction and is often triggered by infection with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli.
Question 4 of 9
As nursing students were setting up a health screening at a local community center, they reviewed the need to screen for heart disease and cancer. One student asked, "But colon cancer is prevalent: why aren't we setting up for sigmoidoscopy?" How would Nurse Filomena reply?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Performing a sigmoidoscopy, which is a procedure to examine the lower part of the colon and rectum, during a health screening event at a community center may not be practical for several reasons. Firstly, sigmoidoscopy is relatively invasive compared to other screening methods for colon cancer, such as fecal occult blood tests or colonoscopy. Secondly, it can be expensive to perform, especially in a community setting where cost-effectiveness is an important consideration. Therefore, Nurse Filomena would likely point out the invasiveness and cost factors to explain why a sigmoidoscopy may not be suitable for a health screening event at a local community center.
Question 5 of 9
As a strong believer of her faith and the need for spiritual guidance, patient Ximena requests that she wants that clergy will visit her. How did nurse Parker function when she initiated the visit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Parker functioned independently when she initiated the visit by arranging for the clergy to see patient Ximena. In this scenario, the nurse took the initiative on her own without needing approval or direction from others. She recognized the patient's request for spiritual guidance and took independent action to meet that need. Independently functioning in this context demonstrates the nurse's autonomy and ability to make decisions based on the patient's preferences and well-being.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following gives cues to the nurse that the patient may be grieving for loss?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A grieving individual may show a range of cues across different aspects of their life. Thoughts may include constant preoccupation with the loss, difficulties in concentrating, or intrusive thoughts. Feelings may involve sadness, anger, guilt, confusion, or relief. Behavioral cues may include changes in sleep patterns, appetite, energy levels, social withdrawal, or the use of substances. Physiologic complaints can manifest as headaches, stomach issues, fatigue, or other physical symptoms. Therefore, when a nurse observes cues related to thoughts, feelings, behavior, and physiologic complaints in a patient, it can suggest that the patient is grieving for a loss.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is an INDICATOR of effective communication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Feedback is an essential indicator of effective communication because it allows the sender to understand how the message was received by the receiver. It provides an opportunity to clarify any misunderstandings, confirm understanding, and ensure that the communication has been successful. Without feedback, the sender cannot be sure if their message was accurately understood or if further explanation or clarification is needed. Effective communication involves a two-way exchange, and feedback plays a crucial role in ensuring that the message is effectively transmitted and received.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus, often triggered by head movements. Dix-Hallpike maneuver elicits positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with recurrent episodes of vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus triggered by head movements, along with a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver eliciting positional vertigo and rotary nystagmus, is classic for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo due to a mechanical problem in the inner ear. In BPPV, brief episodes of vertigo are typically triggered by specific head movements, such as rolling over in bed or looking up. The characteristic rotary nystagmus observed in BPPV is consistent with the brief, intense episodes of vertigo that patients experience. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, commonly used to diagnose BPPV, involves moving the patient from sitting to a supine head-hanging position and can induce vertigo and nystagmus in affected
Question 9 of 9
Lillian asks the nurse the cause of this ailment. Which of the following would the nurse explain as predisposing factors of mastitis? (Select all that apply) I. Milk stasis II. Nipple trauma III. Using alcohol in cleaning nipples IV. Baby 's sitting position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mastitis is typically caused by bacterial infection, with predisposing factors including milk stasis (I) and nipple trauma (II). Milk stasis occurs when milk is not effectively removed from the breast, leading to a build-up that can block ducts and predispose to infection. Nipple trauma, such as cracks or damage, can provide entry points for bacteria to infect the breast tissue. Factors like using alcohol in cleaning nipples (III) and the baby's sitting position (IV) are not directly associated with the development of mastitis.