ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
This condition has difficulty in progressing stimuli and new information. Alzheimer`s is the most common form of which of these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia. Dementia is a general term for a decline in mental ability that becomes severe enough to interfere with daily life. It can affect memory, thinking skills, and the ability to perform everyday tasks. Alzheimer's disease specifically is a progressive brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and eventually impairs the ability to carry out simple tasks. Therefore, the provided condition of having difficulty in processing stimuli and new information aligns with the symptoms commonly seen in individuals with Alzheimer's disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles arranged in a linear distribution. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The classic presentation of scabies includes a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles that are arranged in a linear or burrow-like distribution. These linear tracks are often seen in areas such as the interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, belt line, and genitalia. It is commonly associated with intense itching, especially at night. Unlike psoriasis, which presents with silvery scales and well-defined borders, or contact dermatitis, which results from exposure to a specific allergen or irritant, scabies is caused by a parasitic mite infestation. Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by pruritic eczematous lesions, but it typically does not manifest with a linear distribution of lesions like scabies.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse recognizes that a patient is exhibiting symptoms associated with a TIA. After what period of time does the nurse determine these symptoms will subside?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a temporary disruption in blood supply to the brain. The symptoms of a TIA typically last for a short period of time, usually less than 1 hour. In some cases, the symptoms may last up to 24 hours but generally resolve within a shorter time frame. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the symptoms of a TIA promptly and assess the patient for appropriate management to prevent the risk of a full-blown stroke.
Question 4 of 9
How should the nurse position the patient who is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is in a somnolent status and still under the effect of anesthesia, the most appropriate position to place the patient is in a supine position with the head of the bed slightly elevated. This position helps prevent any obstruction of the airway and promotes optimal ventilation. Elevating the head of the bed ensures that the patient's airway remains clear and allows for proper breathing. Additionally, this position helps prevent aspiration and promotes proper circulation. Overall, the supine position with the head bed slightly elevated is the safest and most effective position for a patient in this condition.
Question 5 of 9
A woman in active labor requests pain relief. Which pharmacological option is safe and effective for pain management during labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrous oxide, also known as "laughing gas," is a safe and effective pharmacological option for pain management during labor. Nitrous oxide is commonly used in labor and delivery settings as it has minimal effects on the baby and allows the woman to remain in control of her pain management. It provides quick pain relief when inhaled and can be adjusted to the woman's needs during labor. Ibuprofen, morphine, and diazepam are not typically used for pain management during labor due to their potential risks and side effects, especially for the baby.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described, involving multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in the genital area, is classic for herpes simplex genitalis. This condition is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicles in the genital or perianal area. The history of similar lesions occurring during periods of stress is also suggestive of herpes simplex virus reactivation. Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) typically present as painless, fleshy growths in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Syphilis manifests as a painless ulcer known as a chancre, which is not described in the presentation. Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, rather than vesicles.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with selective IgA deficiency, a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Selective IgA deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by low or absent levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the blood. Since IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a more severe immunodeficiency disorder affecting T and B lymphocytes, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a disorder of phagocytes, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disease involving red blood cells, none of which are directly associated with selective IgA deficiency.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements indicate an effective communication technique used by the unit manager to her staff?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Option D demonstrates an effective communication technique used by the unit manager because it focuses on discussing strategic approaches to improve the delivery of nursing services while also considering cost effectiveness for the consumers. By emphasizing the need for strategic planning and efficient service delivery, the manager is promoting a proactive and solution-oriented approach rather than simply stating potential negative outcomes or making abrupt decisions like in the other options. This approach fosters more open communication, collaboration, and problem-solving within the team, ultimately leading to better outcomes and team morale.
Question 9 of 9
Ms. Cruz is the supervisor of a hospital on night shift. Several nurses did not report due to Jeepney strike. When the supervisor is executing proper allocation of nurses to the PRIORITY wards to address this concern, she is observing what type of principle?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When the supervisor allocates nurses to the priority wards in response to the situation of several nurses not reporting due to the Jeepney strike, she is practicing the ethical principle of justice. Justice in healthcare pertains to the fair distribution of resources and the equitable treatment of individuals. By ensuring that nurses are allocated fairly and appropriately to address the urgent needs of the hospital and its patients, the supervisor is upholding the principle of justice. This decision aims to ensure that all patients receive the care they need despite the unexpected staffing shortage.