This amine neurotransmitter is found in high concentration in cell bodies in the pons and brainstem; at some sites, release of the transmitter is autoregulated via presynaptic inhibition.

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Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

This amine neurotransmitter is found in high concentration in cell bodies in the pons and brainstem; at some sites, release of the transmitter is autoregulated via presynaptic inhibition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the amine neurotransmitter found in high concentration in cell bodies in the pons and brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the sympathetic nervous system, regulating processes like arousal, attention, and stress response. Additionally, at certain sites, the release of norepinephrine is autoregulated via presynaptic inhibition, where the neuron itself regulates the amount of neurotransmitter released. Now, let's explain why the other options are incorrect: A) Acetylcholine: Acetylcholine is not the neurotransmitter described in the question. While acetylcholine is an important neurotransmitter in the central and peripheral nervous systems, it is not primarily concentrated in the pons and brainstem. B) Dopamine: Dopamine is another important neurotransmitter, but it is not the one described in the question. Dopamine is more commonly associated with functions like reward, motivation, and motor control, and its primary sites of concentration are different from those mentioned in the question. C) Glutamate: Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. While it is involved in various brain functions, it is not the neurotransmitter concentrated in the pons and brainstem as described in the question. Educational Context: Understanding the specific neurotransmitters involved in different brain regions is essential in pharmacology, especially when studying drugs that target these neurotransmitter systems. Knowledge of norepinephrine's role in the brainstem and its autoregulation can help in understanding how drugs affecting norepinephrine function may impact physiological and psychological processes.

Question 2 of 5

A young woman with bipolar disorder is pregnant. Which drug is safest for mood stabilization?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the case of a pregnant woman with bipolar disorder, the safest option for mood stabilization among the given choices is "None of the above." This is because all the drugs listed - Carbamazepine, Clonazepam, and Phenytoin - are known to pose risks to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Carbamazepine is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects and developmental delays. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine that can lead to withdrawal symptoms and respiratory issues in newborns. Phenytoin is known to cause fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes facial abnormalities and developmental delays. In the context of pharmacology, it is crucial to consider the safety of medications during pregnancy, as certain drugs can have harmful effects on the fetus. Healthcare providers need to weigh the risks and benefits of medication use in pregnant individuals to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the developing baby. In this scenario, opting for non-pharmacological interventions or closely monitoring the condition under the guidance of a healthcare provider would be more appropriate than using potentially harmful medications.

Question 3 of 5

The pKa of lidocaine is 7.9. In infected tissue at pH 6.9, the fraction in the ionized form will be

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the concept of pKa is crucial as it determines the ionization state of a drug in different pH environments. In this case, lidocaine has a pKa of 7.9, which means that at a pH below this value, more of the drug will be in its ionized form. At a pH of 6.9 in infected tissue, which is lower than lidocaine's pKa, the drug will predominantly exist in its ionized form. The fraction in the ionized form will be higher, approximately 90%, as indicated by option D. Option A (1%) and Option B (10%) are incorrect because at a pH of 6.9, which is lower than the drug's pKa, the percentage of the drug in its ionized form would be significantly higher than these values due to the acidic environment of infected tissue. Option C (50%) is also incorrect because it represents a midpoint value that does not accurately reflect the ionization behavior of lidocaine at a pH lower than its pKa. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering pH and pKa values when discussing drug ionization and how these factors impact drug distribution and effectiveness in different physiological environments. It reinforces the need for healthcare professionals to have a solid understanding of basic pharmacology principles to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy.

Question 4 of 5

Which one of the following drugs is most often associated with hypotension caused by histamine release?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Tubocurarine. Tubocurarine is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that can cause hypotension due to histamine release. When tubocurarine is administered, it can lead to the release of histamine from mast cells, which in turn can cause vasodilation and hypotension in patients. A) Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for its anxiolytic properties and muscle relaxant effects, but it is not associated with hypotension caused by histamine release. B) Pancuronium is also a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, but it does not typically cause hypotension through histamine release. C) Tizanidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for muscle spasticity, and it does not cause hypotension through histamine release. In an educational context, understanding the side effects and mechanisms of action of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to safely and effectively manage patients receiving these medications. Knowledge of potential adverse effects like histamine-induced hypotension with tubocurarine can help in monitoring and managing patient care appropriately.

Question 5 of 5

A previously healthy 50-year-old woman begins to suffer from slowed mentation and develops writhing movement of her tongue and hands. In addition, she has delusions of being persecuted. The most appropriate drug for treatment is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Haloperidol. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting symptoms of a psychotic disorder, likely drug-induced psychosis. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic medication that is commonly used to manage symptoms like delusions and hallucinations. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate psychotic symptoms. A) Amantadine is primarily used to treat Parkinson's disease and may improve motor function but is not indicated for psychosis. B) Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used in conditions like Parkinson's disease and hyperprolactinemia but is not the first-line treatment for drug-induced psychosis. D) Levodopa is also used in Parkinson's disease to increase dopamine levels in the brain and improve motor symptoms. It is not indicated for treating psychosis symptoms. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. Recognizing the specific indications of different medications helps in making informed decisions about treatment options based on the patient's symptoms and condition.

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