ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Thiopental is used as an anesthetic agent during surgery to repair a small-bowel obstruction in a 78-year-old man. Approximately 1 day after his surgery, toxicology studies still reveal some thiopental present in the bloodstream. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiopental, a barbiturate, persists 24 hours post-surgery. Physiologic metabolism is correct-its lipophilicity causes redistribution to fat, with slow hepatic metabolism, normal in the elderly. Hepatitis or insufficiency lacks evidence. Renal failure doesn't primarily clear it. Trauma (E) is unrelated. This reflects thiopental's pharmacokinetics, not pathology.
Question 2 of 5
The most serious adverse effect of Alprostadil (Prostin VR pediatric injection) administration in neonates is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apnea is the most serious adverse effect of alprostadil in neonates, requiring close monitoring and respiratory support. Alprostadil is used to maintain ductus arteriosus patency in congenital heart defects, but its use carries significant risks. Bleeding, hypotension, and fever are also possible but are less critical than apnea.
Question 3 of 5
For the patient who is taking nalbuphine, what should the nurse do? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nalbuphine is an opioid agonist-antagonist used for pain management. Like other opioids, it can cause respiratory depression, so monitoring respirations is critical. Bradycardia is another potential side effect that patients should report. Administering nalbuphine undiluted is not standard practice, as it can increase the risk of adverse reactions. Excessive urine output is not associated with nalbuphine use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring respirations and educating the patient to report bradycardia.
Question 4 of 5
Thiopental is used as an anesthetic agent during surgery to repair a small-bowel obstruction in a 78-year-old man. Approximately 1 day after his surgery, toxicology studies still reveal some thiopental present in the bloodstream. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiopental, a barbiturate, persists 24 hours post-surgery. Physiologic metabolism is correct-its lipophilicity causes redistribution to fat, with slow hepatic metabolism, normal in the elderly. Hepatitis or insufficiency lacks evidence. Renal failure doesn't primarily clear it. Trauma (E) is unrelated. This reflects thiopental's pharmacokinetics, not pathology.
Question 5 of 5
Upon preparing to administer activated charcoal by mouth to treat a patient who took an overdose of aspirin and several unknown drugs, the nurse notes that the patient has become very somnolent and eyes open only to a noxious stimulus. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate at this point?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's decreased level of consciousness (somnolence and only responding to noxious stimuli) indicates a potential deterioration in their condition, possibly due to the overdose. Activated charcoal is contraindicated in patients with an altered mental status due to the risk of aspiration. The nurse should immediately consult the nurse practitioner to reassess the patient's condition and determine the appropriate intervention, such as securing the airway or considering alternative treatments.