What is the name of the record that shows all medications and treatments provided on a repeated basis?

Questions 63

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ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the name of the record that shows all medications and treatments provided on a repeated basis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The 'Medicine and Treatment Record' is the document that maintains a comprehensive log of all medications and treatments provided on a routine basis. It does not refer to the 'Discharge Summary', which is a clinical report prepared by healthcare professionals at the end of a hospital stay or series of treatments. The 'Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet' is used to gather comprehensive data about the patient's health history and current health status, but it does not record ongoing treatment details. The 'Nursing Kardex' is a patient care information system used to quickly communicate patient needs, but it does not consistently record all medications and treatments provided.

Question 2 of 9

Which food is a reliable source of B12 for a pregnant vegan client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fortified soy milk is a reliable source of vitamin B12 for pregnant vegan clients as it is usually enriched with this vitamin. The other options, while nutritious, are not reliable sources of B12 for vegans. Soybeans may not provide enough B12, algae contains B12 analogs that the human body cannot utilize, and the B12 content in sea vegetables can fluctuate, potentially not providing the necessary daily intake.

Question 3 of 9

What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

Question 4 of 9

What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about the recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress, which may be instituted after a disaster?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Critical incident stress management is a process that provides individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions and strategizing management techniques for handling stress after a disaster. Choice B, 'Follow-up', is incorrect because it generally refers to continuing care after initial treatment, not specifically to stress management education. Choice C, 'Debriefing', is a process where individuals involved in a critical event are brought together to discuss the event and their reactions to it. It can be part of the critical incident stress management process, but it doesn't cover the whole process. Choice D, 'Defusion', is a technique used in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic event to help individuals process their experiences, but it does not encompass the full range of education about stress recognition and management strategies.

Question 6 of 9

Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.

Question 7 of 9

What happens when Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the client's care to the nurse-aide, an unlicensed staff member?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. While it is true that Mrs. Guevarra is delegating tasks to the nurse-aide, she does not necessarily have to directly supervise or evaluate the aide. She still retains the overall accountability for the care of the client, but direct supervision of the aide is not a requirement for delegation. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of delegation is not instruction. Choice B is also incorrect because although Mrs. Guevarra is delegating tasks, she still retains accountability for those tasks. Finally, choice D is incorrect because the ability to perform the task being delegated is not a requirement for the delegator; the delegatee should have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the delegated tasks.

Question 8 of 9

What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

Question 9 of 9

While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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