These contractions occur 3 to 4 times a day and involve large parts of the transverse and descending colon. These contractions are called

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Gastrointestinal Diseases NCLEX Review Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

These contractions occur 3 to 4 times a day and involve large parts of the transverse and descending colon. These contractions are called

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: mass movements. Mass movements are strong contractions that occur 3 to 4 times a day, moving large amounts of fecal material through the colon. This process involves the transverse and descending colon, which aligns with the description provided in the question. Mass movements help propel waste towards the rectum for elimination. Choice B, haustral churning, refers to the mixing and propelling actions that occur in the haustra of the colon, not involving large parts of the transverse and descending colon. Choice C, the defecation reflex, is the process that triggers the urge to defecate, not specific contractions involving the colon. Choice D, teniae coli waves, are contractions of the longitudinal muscles of the colon that create the haustra, not the strong propulsive contractions described in the question.

Question 2 of 5

In human, the cardiac sphincter surrounds the cardiac orifice in the digestive tract. The failure of this sphincter's normal function will result in

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: regurgitation of the food into the oesophagus. The cardiac sphincter is located at the junction between the esophagus and the stomach. Its main function is to prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus. If the cardiac sphincter fails to function properly, it can lead to regurgitation, where stomach contents flow back into the esophagus, causing discomfort and potential damage to the esophageal lining. Summary: B: Loss of control of defecation is not related to the cardiac sphincter, as it primarily functions in the upper digestive tract. C: Movement of the bolus into the trachea is related to swallowing reflex and epiglottis function, not the cardiac sphincter. D: Rapid emptying from the stomach to the small intestine is controlled by the pyloric sphincter, not the cardiac sphincter.

Question 3 of 5

What is the fate of any excess glucose that goes to the liver that is not required for energy and not stored as glycogen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: it is converted into fat. Excess glucose not needed for immediate energy or stored as glycogen is converted into fat through a process called de novo lipogenesis in the liver. This occurs when glucose levels are high and glycogen stores are full. The liver converts the excess glucose into fatty acids and then into triglycerides for storage in adipose tissue. This process helps regulate blood glucose levels and prevents hyperglycemia. Other choices are incorrect: B: Glucose is not directly converted into protein. Proteins are synthesized from amino acids, not glucose. C: Releasing excess glucose back into the bloodstream would lead to high blood sugar levels, which is not a typical physiological response. D: Glucose is not simply degraded; it is either used for energy, stored as glycogen, or converted into fat when in excess.

Question 4 of 5

In planning a treatment and prevention program of chronic fecal incontinence for an elderly client, which intervention should you try first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assist the client to the bedpan or toilet 30 minutes after meals. This intervention is appropriate as it aligns with the natural physiological process of bowel movements after meals, increasing the likelihood of successful evacuation. This timing can help establish a routine and promote regular bowel movements, potentially reducing episodes of fecal incontinence. Choice A is incorrect because administering a glycerin suppository may not address the underlying cause of fecal incontinence and may not promote regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as inserting a rectal tube is an invasive intervention that should only be considered after less invasive methods have been exhausted. Choice D is incorrect as using incontinence briefs or adult-sized diapers only manages the symptoms without addressing the root cause or promoting bowel regularity.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following will have the greatest implication on a client scheduled for a percutaneous liver biopsy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of coagulation studies. This is because coagulation studies assess the client's ability to form blood clots, which is crucial for a percutaneous liver biopsy to prevent excessive bleeding. It helps determine the risk of bleeding complications during the procedure. Choice B, Allergy to iodine, is incorrect because an allergy to iodine is more relevant in procedures involving contrast media, not typically in percutaneous liver biopsies. Choice C, Family history of GI disorders, is incorrect as it does not directly impact the client's safety or outcome during a percutaneous liver biopsy. Choice D, Presence of radioactive material in the work environment, is also incorrect as it is not directly related to the procedure or its implications on the client's safety during a percutaneous liver biopsy.

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