ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ethylenediamines; i.e. Suprastine. Ethylenediamines do not exhibit significant anticholinergic effects. Alkylamines, piperazines, and phenothiazines are known for their anticholinergic properties due to their chemical structures. Alkylamines have tertiary amines that cause anticholinergic effects. Piperazines have a bulky side chain that contributes to anticholinergic effects. Phenothiazines have a tricyclic structure that leads to anticholinergic activity. Therefore, C is the correct answer as ethylenediamines do not possess significant anticholinergic effects compared to the other categories.
Question 2 of 5
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because LDL is a lipoprotein that contains high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. LDL is often referred to as beta-lipoprotein due to its density. Choice B is incorrect as it describes HDL, which contains small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides, and is associated with a decreased risk of heart disease. It is also known as alpha-lipoprotein. Choice C is incorrect as it describes VLDL (very low-density lipoprotein), which carries most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues due to its large proportion of lipids to proteins. Choice D is incorrect as it describes chylomicrons, which are large lipoprotein particles created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. They transport lipids to adipose tissue for breakdown by lipoprotein lipase.
Question 3 of 5
Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are uricosuric drugs employed to decrease the body pool of urate in patients with tophaceous gout or in those with increasingly frequent gouty attacks. This consideration is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are indeed uricosuric drugs used to decrease urate levels in patients with tophaceous gout or frequent gouty attacks. Probenecid works by inhibiting urate reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased urate excretion. Sulfinpyrazone also increases urate excretion. Choice B is incorrect because the statement is true. Choice C is incorrect as it implies all choices are correct, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as it states that none of the choices are correct, which is not true in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
Unwanted effect of etidronate is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Defective bone mineralization. Etidronate is a bisphosphonate used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting bone resorption, leading to increased bone density. However, long-term use can result in defective bone mineralization, leading to brittle or weakened bones. A: Anorexia is not a known side effect of etidronate and is more commonly associated with other medications or medical conditions. C: Hypercalcemia is unlikely with etidronate use since it works to reduce calcium loss from bones. D: Cardiac arrhythmias are not a typical side effect of etidronate and are more commonly associated with other medications or underlying heart conditions.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can reduce the antihypertensive effect of diuretics like chlorthalidone. Ibuprofen can lead to sodium and water retention, counteracting the diuretic's effects. Choices A, B, and D are true statements. A is true because furosemide can cause hypokalemia, increasing the risk of digitalis toxicity. B is true as chlorthalidone can decrease lithium excretion, potentially leading to lithium toxicity. D is true because chlorthalidone has a longer duration of action compared to furosemide due to its longer half-life.