There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ribosome. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, not packaging. The Golgi complex (A) processes and packages proteins. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) (C) is involved in protein synthesis and transport. Lysosomes (D) contain enzymes for digestion, not protein packaging. Therefore, ribosomes are the organelle directly involved in protein synthesis, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Agar media. Influenza viruses cannot be isolated in agar media because they require specific conditions present in laboratory animals, embryonated eggs, or cell cultures for successful isolation and propagation. Agar media lack the necessary components and environment needed for influenza virus replication. In laboratory animals, such as mice, the viruses can replicate and cause infection. Embryonated eggs provide a suitable environment for influenza virus growth and isolation due to the presence of necessary nutrients and factors. Cell cultures offer controlled conditions for virus propagation and study, making them a valuable tool in influenza virus research.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyomavirus infections. Polyomavirus infections do not typically recur during pregnancy because once the virus infects the body, it remains latent without causing recurrent infections. In contrast, choices A, B, and C can recur during pregnancy due to their ability to reactivate from latency or reinfect the host. Epstein-Barr virus infections (choice A) can lead to infectious mononucleosis, herpes simplex virus infections (choice B) can cause recurrent genital or oral herpes outbreaks, and streptococcal infections (choice C) can result in recurrent throat or skin infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in grape-like clusters suggest Staphylococcus. Step 2: Catalase-positive indicates Staphylococcus (negative for Streptococcus). Step 3: Coagulase-positive is specific for Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. C: Enterococcus faecalis does not form grape-like clusters. D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but not coagulase-positive.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria that can trigger a systemic inflammatory response, potentially leading to septic shock. E. coli and Salmonella are common causes of bacterial infections that can result in septic shock, while P. aeruginosa is known for causing infections in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, since all three bacteria produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock, the correct answer is D.Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually produces endotoxins that can contribute to septic shock.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. The statement is incorrect because the secondary immune response is actually faster than the primary immune response. This is due to memory cells that are formed during the primary response, allowing for a quicker and more robust reaction upon re-exposure to the same antigen. The secondary response produces more antibodies and is more effective in clearing the pathogen. Choice A is incorrect because the secondary response is faster, not slower. Choice C is incorrect because the statement is objectively false, regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.