ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
There are pre operative medications given to the patient. Which of the following druugs are given in order to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is given pre-operatively to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and post-operative pain. It is a common analgesic that can help reduce the amount of intra-operative anesthesia needed and provide some pain relief during the surgery. Unlike drugs like Celebrex, Ibuprofen, and Demerol, Acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties, but it is effective in managing pain and can contribute to overall pain control before, during, and after surgery. This makes it a preferred choice for pre-operative medication in order to decrease the need for higher doses of anesthetics and reduce post-operative pain levels.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to
Question 3 of 5
Nurse Angie added that oral contraceptives also contains progesterone. Which of the following is the action of progesterone in contraception? It inhibits _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone in oral contraceptives works primarily by inhibiting ovulation. It suppresses the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for triggering the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By blocking ovulation, progesterone helps prevent pregnancy by making it less likely for a mature egg to be available for fertilization. This mechanism of action is a key factor in the effectiveness of progesterone-containing contraceptives in preventing pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
A woman in active labor experiences frequent and intense uterine contractions with minimal rest intervals, leading to maternal fatigue and decreased fetal oxygenation. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine hyperstimulation, also known as tachysystole, is a condition where the uterus contracts too frequently and/or too forcefully, leading to a decreased uterine blood flow. This can result in maternal fatigue and decreased oxygenation to the fetus, as mentioned in the scenario. Uterine hyperstimulation can be caused by several factors, including the excessive use of uterotonic medications, such as oxytocin, or the presence of uterine abnormalities.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with multiple, hyperpigmented, velvety plaques in flexural areas such as the axillae and neck. The lesions are associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by multiple, hyperpigmented, velvety plaques typically seen in flexural areas such as the axillae, neck, and groin. These lesions are often associated with obesity and insulin resistance. The appearance of acanthosis nigricans is distinct from other skin conditions such as seborrheic keratosis, dermatofibroma, and epidermal nevus. Acanthosis nigricans is commonly seen in conditions like obesity, type 2 diabetes, and metabolic syndrome due to the insulin resistance that leads to the overgrowth of keratinocytes.