There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

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Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the given scenario where there are no other abnormal findings, it suggests that Mr. Thornton is experiencing anterior wall ischemia. Ischemia occurs due to inadequate blood supply to the heart muscles, often caused by a partial blockage in the coronary arteries. The absence of abnormal findings, such as ST-segment elevation or specific changes on the electrocardiogram (ECG), indicates that the issue is more likely ischemia rather than infarction. Infarction, whether NSTEMI or STEMI, would typically be associated with specific ECG changes and significant abnormalities beyond just the absence of findings. In the absence of these features, the more likely diagnosis is anterior wall ischemia.

Question 2 of 5

T. G. is a 48-year-old female who presents with biliary colic. She has had previous episodes but has resisted operation because she is afraid of anesthesia. Today her physical exam reveals a clearly distressed middle-aged female with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. Which of the following findings suggests a complication that requires a surgical evaluation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A leukocyte count of 18,000/µL suggests an elevated white blood cell count, which is indicative of an inflammatory or infectious process. In the context of biliary colic, an elevated white blood cell count could be a sign of complications such as cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder) or choledocholithiasis (bile duct obstruction). These complications may require urgent surgical evaluation and intervention. The other options, although concerning, do not specifically suggest a complication that necessitates immediate surgical evaluation.

Question 3 of 5

Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this case, the best approach to the patient includes assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. Despite the lack of significant prostate hypertrophy on digital rectal examination, the patient is experiencing bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms such as nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling. These symptoms suggest the need to consider alternative causes beyond prostate enlargement. Factors such as overactive bladder, urinary tract infections, diabetes, sleep apnea, medications, or other systemic conditions could be contributing to the patient's symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive evaluation to identify potential nonprostate causes of the patient's nocturia is warranted before considering more invasive prostate-specific tests like PSA, ultrasound, or symptom scales.

Question 4 of 5

Which one of the following is a prerequisite for forceps delivery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ruptured membranes are a prerequisite for forceps delivery to avoid injury to the membranes.

Question 5 of 5

How do maternal mental health issues affect pregnancy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Mental health issues can negatively impact fetal growth and birth outcomes.

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