There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

Question 2 of 9

R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of

Question 3 of 9

Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor due to the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition poses a high risk of morbidity and mortality to both the mother and the baby. A: Incorrect. Bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. B: Incorrect. While bleeding is due to placental issues, it is specifically due to the placenta's abnormal positioning, not a pathological process. C: Incorrect. Bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia, and the timing of bleeding is not linked to gestational age.

Question 4 of 9

Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an excessive amount of amniotic fluid exceeding

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000 to 3000 ml. This is because amniotic fluid serves important functions in protecting the fetus and aiding in fetal movements. Having an excessively high volume can lead to complications such as preterm labor, fetal malpresentation, and placental abruption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not fall within the range typically used to diagnose polyhydramnios. A: 1500 ml and C: 1900 ml are below the threshold, while B: 2500 ml is at the lower end but still not exceeding the diagnostic range for polyhydramnios.

Question 5 of 9

Cord presentation is when the

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.

Question 6 of 9

Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade VVI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute mitral valve regurgitation. The presence of a grade VVI systolic murmur that radiates to the midaxillary line suggests mitral valve involvement. Mitral regurgitation leads to acute onset of symptoms such as dyspnea and pulmonary congestion, indicated by coarse rales on auscultation. The murmur is loudest at the point of maximal impulse due to eccentric regurgitation jet. Acute aortic valve regurgitation (B) typically presents with a diastolic murmur. Acute cardiac tamponade (C) would present with Beck's triad and pulsus paradoxus. Acute pulmonary embolus (D) would present with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.

Question 7 of 9

Specific management of moderate pre-eclampsia involves

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Managing as an outpatient case) Rationale: 1. Moderate pre-eclampsia indicates stable condition. 2. Outpatient management allows close monitoring without hospitalization. 3. Early intervention can prevent progression to severe pre-eclampsia. 4. Hospital admission is reserved for severe cases or complications (not moderate). 5. Encouraging fluids is important, but not the specific management for pre-eclampsia.

Question 8 of 9

There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

Question 9 of 9

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days