ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse observes the client as he walks into the room. What information will this provide the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the client's gait while walking can provide valuable information about their physical mobility, balance, coordination, and any potential musculoskeletal issues. This assessment helps the nurse determine if the client requires any assistance, mobility aids, or further evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices B and C are incorrect as observing gait does not directly provide information on personality or psychosocial status. Choice D is incorrect as gait observation is not specifically related to the rate of recovery from surgery. In summary, observing the client's gait is important for assessing physical mobility and identifying potential issues, making it the most relevant choice in this context.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse observes the temperature record of a client and relates the fever to the brain infection the client currently has. The nurse knows that a high temperature may lead to an increased cerebral irritation. Which of the ff measures can help the nurse control the clients body temperature? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing tepid sponge bath. This measure helps lower body temperature through evaporation of water from the skin. It is effective in managing fever without causing shivering or discomfort. Ice packs (B) can lead to vasoconstriction and shivering, raising body temperature. Antipyretics (C) are drugs that can reduce fever but may not address the underlying cause. Keeping the room warm (D) can exacerbate fever by hindering heat dissipation.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following medications should then nurse explain may cause headache as a side effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonidine (Catapres). Clonidine is known to cause headache as a side effect due to its mechanism of action affecting blood pressure regulation in the brain. Furosemide (A) is a diuretic that typically causes electrolyte imbalances, not headaches. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, which can cause fatigue but not typically headaches. Adalat (D) is a calcium channel blocker that usually causes peripheral edema, not headaches.
Question 5 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.
Question 6 of 9
What is an important consideration regarding TPN administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Aseptic technique prevents infection at IV site. 2. TPN is a high-risk solution, requiring strict aseptic administration. 3. Contaminated site can lead to sepsis or other serious complications. 4. Choice B increases risk of contamination. 5. Choice C increases risk of bacterial growth. 6. Choice D may introduce air or contamination. Summary: Choice A is correct as it emphasizes infection prevention. Choices B, C, and D pose risks of contamination, bacterial growth, or air introduction.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quadriceps setting. After surgery, quadriceps setting exercises are crucial for preventing muscle atrophy and maintaining joint mobility. Bladder control (A) is important but typically not the major early problem. Client education (C) and use of aids for ambulation (D) are important aspects of care but not the primary concern immediately post-surgery. Quadriceps setting helps prevent complications and promote early mobility.
Question 8 of 9
What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the left side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language (Broca's area) and motor function for the right side of the body. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia (difficulty speaking) due to damage to Broca's area and paralysis on the right side of the body due to motor function impairment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the known neurological functions of the brain regions affected by the stroke.
Question 9 of 9
A client with HIV has been prescribed anti viral medications. What instructions related to administration of medications should the nurse give such a client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Timing: Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent drug levels in the body. 2. Around meals: Taking medications with or without food can affect absorption, so timing around meals helps with consistency. 3. Compliance: Following the timing instructions increases medication effectiveness and reduces the risk of drug resistance. Other Choices: B) Avoiding harsh sunlight: Not directly related to medication administration; may be a precaution for other reasons. C) Having medications with fruit juice: This is not a standard instruction for antiviral medications; may not be suitable for all medications. D) Increasing dose for worsening symptoms: This is dangerous and should only be done under healthcare provider supervision; self-adjusting medication doses can be harmful.