ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.
Question 2 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse completes a health history and physical assessment on a client who has been admitted to the hospital for surgery. What is the purpose of this initial assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To establish a database to identify problems and strengths. This initial assessment is crucial for gathering comprehensive information about the client's health status, including past medical history, current health problems, and potential risk factors. By establishing a database, the nurse can identify both existing health issues that need to be addressed and strengths that can be built upon for effective care planning. This assessment serves as the foundation for developing an individualized care plan and monitoring the client's progress throughout their hospital stay. Explanation of other options: A: To gather data about a specific and current health problem - While this may be part of the assessment process, the main purpose is broader in scope to establish a comprehensive database. B: To identify life-threatening problems that require immediate attention - While identifying urgent issues is important, the initial assessment is not solely focused on life-threatening problems. C: To compare and contrast current health status to baseline data - While comparing to baseline data is important for tracking changes, the primary purpose
Question 4 of 9
Hyperparathyroidism is caused by increased levels of thyroxine in blood plasma. A client with this endocrine dysfunction would experience:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperparathyroidism is not caused by increased levels of thyroxine but by overactivity of the parathyroid glands. This would lead to symptoms of heat intolerance due to increased metabolism and systolic hypertension due to the effects of excess parathyroid hormone on calcium levels. Choice B is incorrect because diastolic hypertension and widened pulse pressure are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because anorexia and hyper-excitability are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quadriceps setting. After surgery, quadriceps setting exercises are crucial for preventing muscle atrophy and maintaining joint mobility. Bladder control (A) is important but typically not the major early problem. Client education (C) and use of aids for ambulation (D) are important aspects of care but not the primary concern immediately post-surgery. Quadriceps setting helps prevent complications and promote early mobility.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on the potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more detailed and insightful response. This open-ended question allows the patient to explore various factors contributing to their fatigue, such as lifestyle habits, medical conditions, or emotional stressors. Choice A focuses on stress, which may not be the primary cause of fatigue for the patient. Choice C is too specific and may not uncover other relevant information. Choice D assumes that sleep duration is the sole factor contributing to fatigue, neglecting other possible causes. Overall, choice B facilitates a more comprehensive discussion and helps the nurse gather valuable information to address the patient's concerns effectively.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Norma’s discharge teaching for Mr. Aurelio, diagnosed with heart failure, should stress the significance of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: obtaining daily weights at the same time. This is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Daily weights help detect early signs of fluid buildup. Option A is incorrect as physical activity is important for heart failure patients. Option C is incorrect as walking 2 miles daily may be too strenuous for some heart failure patients. Option D is incorrect as a high fiber diet is beneficial, but monitoring fluid retention is more critical in this case.
Question 8 of 9
Which organ(s) is/are most at risk for dysfunction in a patient with a potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heart. A potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. The heart is highly sensitive to potassium levels, as it plays a crucial role in regulating the heart's electrical activity. Elevated potassium levels can disrupt this balance, leading to serious cardiac complications. Summary: A: Lungs - Not directly affected by potassium levels. B: Liver - Not directly affected by potassium levels. C: Kidneys - Kidneys regulate potassium levels but are not the most at risk for dysfunction in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse observes the temperature record of a client and relates the fever to the brain infection the client currently has. The nurse knows that a high temperature may lead to an increased cerebral irritation. Which of the ff measures can help the nurse control the clients body temperature? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing tepid sponge bath. This measure helps lower body temperature through evaporation of water from the skin. It is effective in managing fever without causing shivering or discomfort. Ice packs (B) can lead to vasoconstriction and shivering, raising body temperature. Antipyretics (C) are drugs that can reduce fever but may not address the underlying cause. Keeping the room warm (D) can exacerbate fever by hindering heat dissipation.