Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?

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Question 1 of 9

Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff is a reason for providing early discharge instructions and making arrangements for home care for clients undergoing mastectomy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Most clients are not hospitalized long after a mastectomy - Correct. This is because mastectomy is often performed as an outpatient procedure, and clients are discharged home shortly after surgery. Step 2: The adverse effects of mastectomy are not immediate - Incorrect. Adverse effects may occur post-surgery, but early discharge is not solely due to immediate adverse effects. Step 3: The wound of the surgery is not highly contagious - Incorrect. Mastectomy wounds are not contagious, and isolation precautions are not necessary. Step 4: Suicidal tendencies in women undergoing mastectomy are not high - Incorrect. While emotional support is crucial, early discharge is not primarily due to suicidal tendencies. Summary: Choice C is correct because mastectomy clients are typically not hospitalized long, making early discharge instructions and home care arrangements necessary. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary reason for early discharge and home care planning.

Question 3 of 9

Why would a Heimlich maneuver be performed on a client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Heimlich maneuver is performed to clear the airway if a client is choking and cannot speak or breathe after swallowing food. Step 1: Assess the situation and confirm airway obstruction. Step 2: Stand behind the client, wrap your arms around their waist, and deliver upward abdominal thrusts. Step 3: Repeat thrusts until the object is dislodged. Other choices are incorrect as they do not address airway obstruction. A: Increasing medication absorption is not a purpose of the Heimlich maneuver. C: Preventing falls and D: Maintaining extremities in proper position are not related to choking emergencies.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more in-depth exploration of the issue. Option A focuses on stress, not necessarily fatigue. Option C is too specific and may not uncover underlying causes. Option D assumes sleep duration is the only factor contributing to fatigue.

Question 5 of 9

For which of the following problems should the nurse monitor in the patient with multiple myeloma?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pathological fractures. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells can weaken the bones, leading to fractures even with minimal trauma. The nurse should monitor for signs of bone pain, decreased mobility, and pathological fractures to prevent complications. Uncontrolled bleeding (A) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Liver engorgement (B) is more commonly seen in conditions like congestive heart failure or liver disease. Respiratory distress (C) is not a common manifestation of multiple myeloma. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for pathological fractures as a priority in a patient with multiple myeloma.

Question 6 of 9

Hypernatremia is associated with a:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Hypernatremia is defined by elevated serum sodium levels (>145mEq/L). Step 2: Serum osmolality of 245mOsm/kg is high, consistent with hypernatremia. Step 3: Urine specific gravity below 1.003 indicates dilute urine, a common finding in hypernatremia. Step 4: The combination of elevated serum sodium, high serum osmolality, and low urine specific gravity confirms hypernatremia. Summary: A: Incorrect, as high serum osmolality (not 245mOsm/kg) is associated with hypernatremia. B: Incorrect, as low urine specific gravity (not below 1.003) is seen in hypernatremia. C: Incorrect, as serum sodium needs to be >145mEq/L to indicate hypernatremia.

Question 7 of 9

Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.

Question 8 of 9

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse teaches a diabetic client that diet plays a crucial role in managing diabetes mellitus. When evaluating dietary intake, the nurse knows the client is eating the right foods if total daily caloric intake consists of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (50% to 55% carbohydrate, 35% fat, and 10% to 15% protein) for managing diabetes. Carbohydrates impact blood sugar levels the most, so a moderate intake is crucial. The fat percentage is lower to reduce the risk of cardiovascular issues, common in diabetics. Protein intake is moderate for muscle maintenance. Choice A has higher fat and lower carbohydrate, not ideal for diabetes. Choice B has too high carbohydrate, which can spike blood sugar. Choice D has the highest carbohydrate percentage, which is not recommended for diabetes management.

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