ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The United Nations estimates that by the year 2050 more than __________ of the world’s population will live in urban areas.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (69%). The UN projects that by 2050, around 69% of the world's population will live in urban areas. This is based on current global urbanization trends and population growth rates. Urban areas are experiencing rapid population growth due to factors like rural-to-urban migration and natural population increase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the expected urban population growth by 2050. A (35%), B (56%), and C (60%) are too low compared to the projected 69%. Urbanization is a significant global trend, and it is essential to consider the implications of this shift for sustainability, infrastructure development, and resource allocation.
Question 2 of 9
When cultured on solid growth media, bacteria with long O-specific chains form:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.
Question 3 of 9
Bacillary dysentery is also called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bacillary dysentery is caused by the bacterium Shigella, hence it is also known as shigellosis. Shigella is the primary pathogen responsible for this infectious disease, leading to severe diarrhea with blood and mucus. Salmonellosis (A) is caused by Salmonella bacteria, not Shigella. Typhoid fever (C) is caused by Salmonella typhi, not Shigella. Campylobacteriosis (D) is caused by Campylobacter bacteria, not Shigella. Therefore, the correct answer is B because Shigella is the specific bacterium associated with bacillary dysentery.
Question 4 of 9
A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy has a child with multiple congenital defects. This is a result of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teratogenesis. Teratogenesis refers to the process of abnormal development of the fetus leading to congenital defects due to exposure to harmful agents during pregnancy. In this case, toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy can lead to teratogenesis, causing multiple congenital defects in the child. Other choices are incorrect because B: Cancerogenesis refers to the process of cancer formation, C: Recombination is a genetic process unrelated to congenital defects, and D: Chemical mutagenesis refers to mutations caused by chemical agents, not necessarily congenital defects.
Question 5 of 9
Your patient is a 22-year-old man. The patient reports that two weeks after unprotected sexual contact, a small ulcer appeared on its penis. The local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Dark field microscopic examination of the ulcer secretions was performed. The test reveals presence of motile, curved spirochete. The most common causative agent of the disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. The scenario describes symptoms of primary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum. The presence of a painless ulcer (chancre) and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are characteristic of syphilis. Dark field microscopic examination showing motile, curved spirochetes is highly specific for Treponema pallidum. Incorrect explanations: A: Chlamydia trachomatis typically causes urethritis or cervicitis, not painless ulcers. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, which presents with purulent discharge, not painless ulcers. D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes, leading to painful ulcers and vesicles, not painless ulcers seen in syphilis.
Question 6 of 9
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.
Question 7 of 9
Bacteria that require oxygen for survival are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obligate aerobes. These bacteria require oxygen for their survival and growth. They utilize oxygen in their metabolic processes and cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. Choice A, obligate anaerobes, cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. Choice B, facultative anaerobes, can switch between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism based on oxygen availability. Choice D, aerotolerant anaerobes, can tolerate the presence of oxygen but do not require it for their growth. Therefore, the most appropriate term for bacteria that require oxygen for survival is obligate aerobes.
Question 8 of 9
The term used to indicate the extent to which a drug reaches its site of action is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: bioavailability. Bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which a drug reaches its site of action in the body. This includes factors such as absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Rationale: 1. Bioactivity refers to the pharmacological effect of a drug, not how effectively it reaches its site of action. 2. Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to remove or neutralize pollutants, not related to drug delivery. 3. Biostasis refers to a state of equilibrium or balance in living organisms, not related to drug transport to its site of action. In summary, bioavailability is the most appropriate term as it specifically addresses the process of a drug reaching its intended target within the body, distinguishing it from the other choices.
Question 9 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.