The type of heat loss that is prevented by keeping the NBU temperature warm & warm wrapping of the neonates is

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

The type of heat loss that is prevented by keeping the NBU temperature warm & warm wrapping of the neonates is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conduction. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. By keeping the neonatal unit warm and wrapping neonates in warm blankets, heat loss through direct contact with surfaces is minimized. Convection involves heat transfer through air or fluid movement, not relevant in this scenario. Evaporation is the process of heat loss through moisture evaporation from the skin, not applicable here. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves, which can be prevented by warm wrapping but not the primary focus in this context.

Question 2 of 9

A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.

Question 3 of 9

Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.

Question 4 of 9

While participating in sports, it is not uncommon for people to be subjected to sudden rotational injuries that result in the abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex around the more fixed midbrain structures. This can interrupt input and outflow from the reticular activating system and result in what clinical phenomenon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidural hematoma. 1. Sudden rotational injuries can cause tearing of the middle meningeal artery, leading to an epidural hematoma. 2. The hematoma can compress the brain, disrupting the reticular activating system, causing altered consciousness. 3. Uncal herniation (B) involves herniation of the uncus, not rotation-related. 4. Concussion (C) is a mild traumatic brain injury, not directly related to rotational injuries. 5. Contrecoup injury (D) is when the brain impacts the opposite side of the skull due to sudden deceleration, not rotation-induced.

Question 5 of 9

Fetal indications for cesarean section include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fetal indications for cesarean section typically involve situations where the baby cannot safely be delivered vaginally. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion means the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis, necessitating a C-section. Impacted face presentation can result in difficulty during delivery, also requiring a C-section. Locked twins refer to a situation where the babies are unable to move past each other during delivery, further indicating the need for a C-section. Choices A, B, and C include some relevant indications for a C-section, but they do not encompass the full range of fetal indications like choice D does.

Question 6 of 9

Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.

Question 7 of 9

A fetal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fetal macrosomia. Prolonged pregnancy increases the risk of fetal macrosomia due to continued fetal growth beyond the normal term. This can lead to complications during delivery, such as shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Placental dysfunction and cesarean section are possible outcomes of prolonged pregnancy but are not directly associated with fetal risks in this context. Shoulder dystocia is a potential complication of fetal macrosomia but is not a direct fetal risk of prolonged pregnancy.

Question 8 of 9

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

Question 9 of 9

A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.

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