The type of heat loss that is prevented by keeping the NBU temperature warm & warm wrapping of the neonates is

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

The type of heat loss that is prevented by keeping the NBU temperature warm & warm wrapping of the neonates is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conduction. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. By keeping the neonatal unit warm and wrapping neonates in warm blankets, heat loss through direct contact with surfaces is minimized. Convection involves heat transfer through air or fluid movement, not relevant in this scenario. Evaporation is the process of heat loss through moisture evaporation from the skin, not applicable here. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves, which can be prevented by warm wrapping but not the primary focus in this context.

Question 2 of 9

What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.

Question 3 of 9

The birth weight of an extremely low birth weight baby ranges between

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (1000-500 gm) because extremely low birth weight babies are typically defined as those weighing less than 1000 grams (1kg) at birth. This range specifically includes weights below 1000 grams, making it the most accurate choice. Choice B (500-1500 gm) is incorrect because it includes weights above the threshold for extremely low birth weight (1000 gm). Choice C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect because it excludes babies weighing less than 1000 gm, which are considered extremely low birth weight. Choice D (1500-2000 gm) is also incorrect as it includes weights above the range for extremely low birth weight babies.

Question 4 of 9

A condition of trial of scar is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.

Question 5 of 9

T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, T. S. is brain dead and has a donor notation. However, a long history of alcohol use can lead to liver damage, making her liver unsuitable for donation. Encephalopathy (A) is a brain disorder but does not necessarily impact liver suitability. Hepatitis C infection (B) can affect the liver, but it doesn't automatically disqualify someone from being a donor. Biliary cirrhosis (D) refers to a specific liver condition, but it does not preclude someone from being a liver donor unless it has severely damaged the liver beyond use.

Question 6 of 9

A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.

Question 7 of 9

What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.

Question 8 of 9

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.

Question 9 of 9

Mrs. Coates is a 65-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer. She had an uneventful immediate postoperative course, but throughout the course of day 1 she has complained of a mild abdominal discomfort that has progressed throughout the day. This evening the AGACNP is called to the bedside to evaluate the patient for persistent and progressive discomfort. Likely causes of her symptoms include all of the following except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric retention. Mrs. Coates' symptoms of persistent and progressive discomfort are not likely due to gastric retention because she underwent a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer, which would bypass the stomach. Therefore, gastric retention is not a possible cause. A: Colic due to return of peristalsis is a possible cause as peristalsis returning after surgery can cause discomfort. B: Leakage from the duodenal stump is a possible cause as it can lead to abdominal discomfort postoperatively. D: Hemorrhage is a possible cause given her history of bleeding ulcer and surgery.

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