ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The type of cord prolapse characterized by presence of the fetal umbilical cord alongside the presenting part is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Funic cord prolapse. Funic cord prolapse is characterized by the fetal umbilical cord being alongside the presenting part. This type of cord prolapse is a more specific term used to describe the exact position of the cord in relation to the presenting part. The other choices are incorrect because: - A: Occult umbilical cord prolapse refers to a hidden or concealed cord prolapse, where the cord is not visible externally. - B: Overt umbilical cord prolapse is when the cord is visible externally before the presenting part. - D: Complete cord prolapse implies that the entire cord has descended through the cervix before the presenting part, not just alongside it. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the specific positioning of the umbilical cord in relation to the presenting part during cord prolapse.
Question 2 of 9
Lester R. is a 58-year-old male who is being evaluated for nocturia. He reports that he has to get up 2 to 3 times nightly to void. Additional assessment reveals urinary urgency and appreciable post-void dribbling. A digital rectal examination reveals a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. The best approach to this patient includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessment of nonprostate causes of nocturia. In this case, the patient's symptoms of nocturia, urinary urgency, and post-void dribbling are not indicative of prostate enlargement. Given that the digital rectal examination revealed a normal-sized prostate with no hypertrophy, it is essential to explore other potential causes of nocturia in this patient. By assessing non-prostate causes of nocturia, such as diabetes, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or sleep disorders, a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan can be developed. This approach will lead to better patient outcomes compared to focusing solely on prostate-related evaluations. Option A: Administration of the AUA Symptom Scale is not the best approach in this case because the patient's symptoms are not primarily related to prostate enlargement. Option B: Laboratory assessment to include a PSA is not necessary since the digital rectal examination already indicated a normal-sized prostate with no appreciable hypertrophy. Option C: Ordering a
Question 3 of 9
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.
Question 4 of 9
Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor due to the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition poses a high risk of morbidity and mortality to both the mother and the baby. A: Incorrect. Bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. B: Incorrect. While bleeding is due to placental issues, it is specifically due to the placenta's abnormal positioning, not a pathological process. C: Incorrect. Bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia, and the timing of bleeding is not linked to gestational age.
Question 5 of 9
Vaginal delivery is possible in
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.
Question 6 of 9
How can folic acid supplementation prevent neural tube defects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because folic acid supplementation plays a crucial role in promoting spinal cord closure during fetal development, preventing neural tube defects. Folic acid helps in the formation of neural tube structures, ensuring proper closure and preventing defects like spina bifida. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as preventing infections, enhancing fetal growth, and regulating blood sugar levels are not direct mechanisms through which folic acid prevents neural tube defects.
Question 7 of 9
Psychosocial adversities are among the predisposing factors of puerperal psychosis.
Correct Answer: T
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum. 2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues. 3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis. 4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health. Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.
Question 8 of 9
In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.
Question 9 of 9
T. G. is a 48-year-old female who presents with biliary colic. She has had previous episodes but has resisted operation because she is afraid of anesthesia. Today her physical exam reveals a clearly distressed middle-aged female with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. Which of the following findings suggests a complication that requires a surgical evaluation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A temperature of 101.5°F. A fever indicates an inflammatory response, which could be due to a complication like cholecystitis or cholangitis. Elevated leukocyte count (choice B) supports infection but is not as specific as a fever. Palpable gallbladder (choice C) may suggest inflammation but not necessarily a complication. A positive Murphy's sign (choice D) is indicative of gallbladder inflammation but does not directly indicate a complication requiring surgical evaluation.