Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Funic cord prolapse. Funic cord prolapse is characterized by the fetal umbilical cord being alongside the presenting part. This type of cord prolapse is a more specific term used to describe the exact position of the cord in relation to the presenting part. The other choices are incorrect because: - A: Occult umbilical cord prolapse refers to a hidden or concealed cord prolapse, where the cord is not visible externally. - B: Overt umbilical cord prolapse is when the cord is visible externally before the presenting part. - D: Complete cord prolapse implies that the entire cord has descended through the cervix before the presenting part, not just alongside it. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the specific positioning of the umbilical cord in relation to the presenting part during cord prolapse.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.