The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is specific for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bright red bacilli seen in the smear indicate the presence of acid-fast organisms, which is characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium tetani, and Escherichia coli are not acid-fast bacteria and would not be stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because coagulase helps bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus to form clots, allowing them to evade the host immune response. This mechanism helps the bacteria to hide from the immune system and establish infection. A. Adhesion to surfaces is usually facilitated by other factors like adhesins. B. Breaking down red blood cells is not a function of coagulase. D. Antibiotic resistance is typically mediated by other mechanisms like efflux pumps or enzymatic inactivation, not coagulase.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imipenem. Imipenem is a carbapenem antibiotic effective against multiple-resistant microorganisms due to its broad spectrum and resistance to beta-lactamases. It is often used as a last resort for severe infections. Ampicillin (A) and Penicillin (B) are both beta-lactam antibiotics that are less effective against multiple-resistant microorganisms due to widespread resistance mechanisms. Augmentin (C) is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, which may have limited efficacy against certain resistant strains but is not as effective as imipenem for treating infections caused by multiple-resistant microorganisms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mycobacterium leprae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria known to cause leprosy. 2. Clostridium perfringens is incorrect as it is associated with gas gangrene. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae is incorrect as it is commonly linked to pneumonia and meningitis. 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect as it causes gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. In summary, Mycobacterium leprae is the only bacteria among the choices specifically known to cause leprosy, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. Two weeks after hemotransfusion, the onset of fever indicates a possible bloodborne infection. Malaria is a protozoal disease transmitted through infected blood, causing symptoms like fever. Toxoplasmosis, Leishmaniasis, and Amebiasis are not typically associated with fever following hemotransfusion. Malaria fits the timeline and mode of transmission in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporotrichosis. Sporotrichosis is caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii, which commonly presents as a subcutaneous infection. In the given case, the presence of a small abscess with yellowish-green pus containing white granules is indicative of sporotrichosis. The histological examination showing drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, and macrophages further supports the diagnosis of sporotrichosis. Choice A: Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection. Choice B: Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus species and typically presents as a pulmonary infection, not a subcutaneous abscess as described in the case. Choice C: Candidosis is caused by Candida species and usually presents as mucocutaneous infections, not a subcutaneous abscess with the