ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: frenulum. The frenulum is a small fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to limit the movement of the tongue, preventing excessive movement that could lead to injury. The uvula (A) is a soft tissue dangling at the back of the throat, the palate (B) is the roof of the mouth, and papillae (C) are small raised structures on the tongue's surface. These structures are not involved in connecting the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
Question 2 of 9
When examining the eye, the nurse is aware that the bulbar conjunctiva:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: overlies the sclera. The bulbar conjunctiva is the transparent layer that covers the white part of the eye (sclera). This layer helps protect the eye and keeps it moist. It does not cover the iris and pupil (B), as that is the cornea's role. It is not visible at the inner canthus (C), which is where the lacrimal caruncle is located. Lastly, it is not a mucous membrane lining the lids (D), as that is the role of the palpebral conjunctiva. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 3 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 4 of 9
While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.
Question 5 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 6 of 9
What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is performing an eye assessment on an 80-year-old patient. Which of the following findings is considered abnormal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because unequal pupillary constriction in response to light is abnormal and may indicate nerve damage or neurological issues. A: Decrease in tear production is common with age. C: Arcus senilis is a normal age-related change. D: Loss of hair at the outer line of the eyebrows is also a common age-related change.
Question 8 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 9 of 9
The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: mandible. The temporomandibular joint is located just below the temporal artery and it connects the mandible (lower jaw) to the temporal bone. This joint allows for movement of the jaw during actions like chewing and speaking. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the temporomandibular joint is not located near the hyoid bone (A), the vagus nerve (B), or the tragus of the ear (C). These structures are not directly associated with the temporomandibular joint's anatomical location and function.