The territory of an old burial ground for animal refuse that hasn't been used for over 50 years is meant for house building. But soil investigation showed the presence of viable spores of a causative agent causing a very dangerous disease. What microorganism might have been preserved in soil for such a long period of time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to form highly resistant spores that can survive for long periods in soil. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a dangerous disease that can be transmitted to humans and animals. The other choices, Francisella tularensis, Brucella abortus, and Yersinia pestis, do not form spores as resistant as Bacillus anthracis. Therefore, only Bacillus anthracis is likely to have survived in the soil of the old burial ground for animal refuse for over 50 years.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome. They carry additional genetic information, such as antibiotic resistance genes or virulence factors. Mesosomes (choice A) are not involved in carrying genetic information; they are infoldings of the cell membrane. Ribosomes (choice C) are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis, not carriers of genetic information. Choice D is incorrect as plasmids are indeed extrachromosomal carriers of genetic information in bacteria.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are all common causes of bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is often associated with outbreaks in community settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults. Haemophilus influenzae used to be a common cause in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Therefore, since all three bacteria are known to cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis, making "All of the above" the correct comprehensive answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: placenta. The placenta is a highly specialized structure that forms during pregnancy and serves as a barrier, protecting the fetus from harmful microorganisms that could potentially harm the developing baby. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and fetus while preventing the passage of most bacteria and viruses. The uterus (A) is the organ where the fetus develops, but it does not have the specific protective functions of the placenta. The vagina (C) is the birth canal and does not provide protection from microorganisms for the fetus. The mammary gland (D) is responsible for producing milk after birth and is not directly involved in protecting the fetus from microorganisms during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls that have a parietal layer (peptidoglycan layer) and a defective peptidoglycan layer. This is because spheroplasts have lost their rigid cell wall structure, leading to an incomplete peptidoglycan layer. Choice B is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane is not directly affected by the loss of cell wall integrity. Choice C is incorrect because spheroplasts do not have an outer membrane defect, but rather a defect in the peptidoglycan layer. Choice D is incorrect because spheroplasts still have peptidoglycan, even though it is defective.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, a highly infectious bacterium. 2. Francisella tularensis is the only pathogen specifically known to cause tularemia. 3. The other choices (Bordetella pertussis, Brucella suis, Legionella sp.) are not associated with tularemia. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A - Francisella tularensis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. The rationale is as follows: 1. Gentian violet is a primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to stain the bacterial cells. 2. Lugol's solution is a mordant that helps to fix the crystal violet stain in Gram-positive bacteria. 3. 95% alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent in the Gram staining process to remove the stain from Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Watermagenta is not a standard reagent in the Gram staining method. Therefore, based on the reagents mentioned, the staining method applied in this case is the Gram staining method. Other choices are incorrect: B: Ziehl-Nielsen's - This staining method is used for acid-fast staining, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky - This staining method is used for blood smears, not for bacterial staining in pneumonia. D: Neisser - This staining method is not commonly used in routine bacterial staining procedures.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. This bacterium produces tetanospasmin toxin, causing tetanus. Clostridium botulinum (choice A) produces botulinum toxin, leading to botulism. Bacillus anthracis (choice C) causes anthrax, not tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) can cause various infections, but not tetanus. Therefore, only Clostridium tetani is the causative agent of tetanus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norwalk Virus. The Norwalk Virus belongs to the family Caliciviridae because it has characteristic features such as a nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA genome. The other options, Yellow fever virus, Rubella virus, and CMV, belong to different virus families and have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from Caliciviridae. Yellow fever virus is a Flavivirus, Rubella virus belongs to Togaviridae, and CMV is a member of the Herpesviridae family. Therefore, based on the genomic and structural characteristics of the Norwalk Virus, it is the correct choice for belonging to the Caliciviridae family.