ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.
Question 2 of 9
On postoperative day 7 following hepatic transplant, the patient evidences signs and symptoms of acute rejection, confirmed by histologic examination. The AGACNP knows that first-line treatment of acute rejection consists of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is a first-line treatment for acute rejection following hepatic transplant due to its immunosuppressive properties. It inhibits T-cell activation and cytokine production, suppressing the immune response against the transplanted liver. This helps in preventing further damage caused by rejection. Azathioprine (B) and Sirolimus (D) are also immunosuppressants, but Cyclosporine is preferred as the initial treatment. Methylprednisolone (C) is a corticosteroid that can be used in combination with Cyclosporine for acute rejection to provide a more potent immunosuppressive effect.
Question 3 of 9
ed rosy appearance on the face and greatly reduced eliminations are among the features of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Hyperthermia neonatorum refers to elevated body temperature in newborns. 2. The ed rosy appearance on the face is a common symptom of hyperthermia due to increased blood flow to the skin. 3. Greatly reduced eliminations can be a sign of dehydration associated with hyperthermia. 4. The other choices (hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia) do not align with the symptoms described.
Question 4 of 9
What are the key signs of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and symptoms like severe headaches. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign, proteinuria indicates kidney damage, and severe headaches can be a symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Therefore, all three signs are crucial for diagnosing preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key signs necessary for diagnosing preeclampsia.
Question 5 of 9
In the management of a low birth weight baby, a thermal controlled environment is aimed at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facilitation of weight gain. A thermal controlled environment for a low birth weight baby helps in maintaining the baby's body temperature, reducing energy expenditure, and promoting weight gain. This is crucial for the baby's growth and development. Incorrect choices: A: Prevention of infection - While a thermal controlled environment can indirectly help prevent infections by maintaining the baby's health, it is not the primary aim. C: Provision of quality care - Quality care involves multiple aspects beyond just thermal control, so this is not the primary aim. D: Provision of nutrition - Nutrition is important for weight gain, but the thermal controlled environment specifically focuses on regulating the baby's body temperature to support weight gain.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a true statement with respect to the use of corticosteroids in posttransplant patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. High-dose initial steroids are tapered off over a period of 4 to 6 weeks posttransplant. This is because corticosteroids are used initially to prevent rejection and then gradually tapered to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect as it states a general interest but does not address the specific protocol for corticosteroid use. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence suggesting better results in corticosteroid-free protocols for second-transplant recipients. Choice D is incorrect as there is no strong evidence supporting corticosteroid-free rejection protocols in posttransplant patients.
Question 7 of 9
Ms. Kweke’s possible complications (obstructed labour):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Obstructed labor can lead to prolonged pressure on the uterus, causing hemorrhage and uterine rupture (A). 2. Prolonged labor can result in fetal distress due to reduced oxygen supply and potential infection (B). 3. Therefore, both complications mentioned in A and B can occur in obstructed labor. Summary: A: Incorrect - Preterm birth and asphyxia are not directly related to obstructed labor. B: Incorrect - Only fetal distress and infection are commonly associated with obstructed labor. C: Incorrect - Both A and B are possible complications of obstructed labor, making D the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
Use of bed cradle in the management of leg thrombosis is meant to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The use of bed cradle in leg thrombosis management is to promote venous drainage. Elevating the legs on a bed cradle helps improve blood flow back to the heart, reducing swelling and preventing blood clots. Keeping the legs straight (A) is not the main purpose. Preventing embolism (B) is important but not the direct purpose of a bed cradle. Controlling body temperature (C) is unrelated to the use of a bed cradle for leg thrombosis.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type A aortic aneurysm. Type A involves the ascending aorta, which is more critical due to proximity to the heart. Immediate surgical intervention is necessary to prevent catastrophic complications like aortic dissection or rupture. Choice B, Type B, usually involves the descending aorta and can often be managed through medical therapy initially. Choice C, Descending aneurysm, may not require immediate surgery unless symptomatic or rapidly expanding. Choice D, Symptomatic aneurysm, could refer to any type and would need further evaluation to determine the urgency of surgical intervention.