ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus. A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question. C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia. D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.
Question 2 of 9
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 3 of 9
What are the risks of a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.
Question 4 of 9
Causes of Down syndrome are
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.
Question 5 of 9
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays. Explanation of other choices: B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively. C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation. D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with
Question 6 of 9
Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Culture and level of education. Culture influences beliefs about pain and coping mechanisms. Education can affect understanding of pain and pain management techniques. Labor preparedness and fatigue (A) may impact pain perception but are not as influential. Age (C) alone does not determine pain perception. Number of deliveries and anxiety (D) can play a role but are not as significant as culture and education.
Question 7 of 9
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.
Question 8 of 9
A fetal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fetal macrosomia. Prolonged pregnancy increases the risk of fetal macrosomia due to continued fetal growth beyond the normal term. This can lead to complications during delivery, such as shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Placental dysfunction and cesarean section are possible outcomes of prolonged pregnancy but are not directly associated with fetal risks in this context. Shoulder dystocia is a potential complication of fetal macrosomia but is not a direct fetal risk of prolonged pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
Some of the neonatal complications of eclampsia are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe asphyxia and prematurity. In eclampsia, maternal hypertension can lead to placental insufficiency, reducing oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, resulting in severe asphyxia and premature birth. This is due to the high risk of placental abruption and intrauterine growth restriction. Other choices are incorrect because cerebral hemorrhage and pneumonia (choice A) are not commonly associated with neonatal complications of eclampsia. Fractures and soft tissue trauma (choice C) are not typical complications of eclampsia in neonates. Respiratory distress and hypoglycemia (choice D) are more commonly seen in neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes, not eclampsia.