The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus. A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question. C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia. D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surgical procedure in which the cartilage of the pubic symphysis is divided. Pubiotomy involves cutting the pubic symphysis cartilage to widen the pelvic outlet during difficult childbirth. This procedure helps facilitate labor by increasing the pelvic diameter. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe pubiotomy. Choice A refers to accessing the lower uterine segment, choice C involves ligating pubic bones for cancer, and choice D pertains to perineal tissue dissection during labor, which are unrelated to pubiotomy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diamorphine. Diamorphine is a non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labor. It is a type of opioid analgesic that helps to reduce pain during labor. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, altering the perception of pain. Rationale: 1. Diamorphine is a medication that directly targets pain relief. 2. It is a commonly used non-pharmacological measure in labor settings. 3. Diamorphine does not involve the use of any gases or inhalants like Entonox (A) or Cyclothane (B). 4. Homeopathy (D) is based on the principle of treating "like with like" using highly diluted substances and is not typically used for pain relief in labor. Summary: A: Entonox and B: Cyclothane are incorrect because they are pharmacological measures involving the use of gases or inhalants. D: Homeopathy is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conduction. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. By keeping the neonatal unit warm and wrapping neonates in warm blankets, heat loss through direct contact with surfaces is minimized. Convection involves heat transfer through air or fluid movement, not relevant in this scenario. Evaporation is the process of heat loss through moisture evaporation from the skin, not applicable here. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves, which can be prevented by warm wrapping but not the primary focus in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (1000-500 gm) because extremely low birth weight babies are typically defined as those weighing less than 1000 grams (1kg) at birth. This range specifically includes weights below 1000 grams, making it the most accurate choice. Choice B (500-1500 gm) is incorrect because it includes weights above the threshold for extremely low birth weight (1000 gm). Choice C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect because it excludes babies weighing less than 1000 gm, which are considered extremely low birth weight. Choice D (1500-2000 gm) is also incorrect as it includes weights above the range for extremely low birth weight babies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus. A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question. C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia. D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.